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PrepKing.com Cisco 642-631 Sample Questions
Exam : Cisco 642-631
Title : Advanced Wireless LAN for Field Engineers
1. You are installing a Cisco 4402 Series Wireless LAN Controller. Which type of interface should you use
on the controller’s distribution port?
A. 10/100 Mbps RJ45
B. 1000BASE-SX SFP
C. 10/100/1000 Mbps RJ45
D. 10000BASE-SX
Answer: B
2. Which of these statements is true about SSIDs configured in Cisco ADU?
A. SSIDs must be listed in the same order in the ADU as they are in the access point.
B. A maximum of three SSIDs may be configured.
C. SSIDs may have a maximum of 16 characters.
D. SSIDs are not case-sensitive.
Answer: B
3. How many RADIUS servers can be added to a controller and thereafter assigned to the authentication or
accounting of individual WLAN IDs?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
Answer: D
4. What is the maximum number of WLAN controllers that can join a single mobility group?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 36
D. 48
Answer: B
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5. When configuring QoS on a wireless controller, the per-user, real-time bandwidth contract is enforced for
which of the following protocols?
A. IP
B. IPX
C. UDP
D. TCP
Answer: C
6. Which three of these user groups are available on Cisco WCS version 4.0? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. Power Users
C. Administrators
D. Users Assistant
E. Network Operator
F. System Monitoring
Answer: ADF
7. Cisco WCS version 4.0 is supported on which operating system?
A. Solaris 10
B. Vista
C. Windows XP Pro
D. Windows 2000 SP4
E. Windows Server 2003
Answer: E
8. Which of the following commands on the wireless interface of a Cisco 3845 Integrated Services Router
allows the SSID to broadcast?
A. router (config-ssid)# enable
B. router (config-ssid)# advertise
C. router (config-ssid)# broadcast
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D. router (config-ssid)# guest-mode
Answer: D
9. When configuring a Cisco 3845 Integrated Services Router to support 802.11b and g clients, which of the
following commands would be correct?
A. router (config-if)# speed basic-1.0 2.0 5.5 6.0 9.0 11.0 12.0 18.0 24.0 36.0 48.0 54.0
B. router (config-if)# speed 1.0 2.0 5.5 basic-6.0 9.0 11.0 12.0 18.0 24.0 36.0 48.0 54.0
C. router (config-if)# speed basic-1.0 2.0 5.5 basic-6.0 9.0 11.0 12.0 18.0 24.0 36.0 48.0 54.0
D. router (config-if)# speed 1.0 2.0 5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 12.0 basic-18.0 24.0 36.0 48.0 54.0
Answer: A
10. One of your customers has decided to deploy location-based services in addition to existing wireless
services. The customer requires that the additional access points to be deployed in monitor-only mode. The
most likely reason for this requirement is that the customer has which of these existing wireless devices?
A. 802.11b/g VoIP
B. Data Collection
C. 802.11b and g clients
D. RFID tags
Answer: A
11. Which of the following parameter sets must be configured on the Cisco Wireless Location Appliance?
A. location views
B. object definitions
C. access points
D. network connections
Answer: D
12. EAP-FAST provides a secure tunnel during Phase One to protect the user’s authentication credentials.
Which of these entities initializes the secure tunnel?
A. generic token card
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B. x.509 certificate
C. preshared key
D. Protected Access Credential
Answer: D
13. What is the maximum number of hexadecimal characters allowed when configuring the WPA or WPA2
passphrase in Cisco ADU?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C
14. Which authentication types are allowed with the Cisco ADU when selecting WPA/WPA2/CCKM under
the security options?
A. Cisco-LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP (GTC), EAP-TLS
B. Cisco-LEAP, EAP-MD5, EAP-PEAP (GTC), EAP-TTLS
C. Cisco-LEAP, EAP-PSK, EAP-PEAP (MS-CHAP v2), EAP-TLS
D. Cisco-LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP (MS-CHAP v2), EAP-TTLS
Answer: A
15. When assigning a standalone access point a non-root role, which two parameters, other than Role in
the radio network settings, must be configured on the SSID Manager page? (Choose two.)
A. Set Data Beacon Rate
B. Set Infrastructure SSID
C. Enable IP redirection on this SSID
D. Multiple BSSID
E. Force Infrastructure Devices to associate only to this SSID
Answer: BE
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16. How many WLANs can a Cisco Aironet 1242 in H-REAP mode support when actively connected to a
wireless controller?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: B
17. When configuring Cisco Secure ACS to support wireless EAP authentication, which device must be
configured as a AAA client?
A. Wireless Control System
B. wireless clients
C. wireless controllers
D. controller-based access points
E. Location Appliance
Answer: C
18. Which protocol does the RADIUS server use inside the secure tunnel of EAP-FAST to authenticate the
client when one-time passwords are in use?
A. MS-CHAP v2
B. PAP
C. GTC
D. MD5
Answer: C
19. You are configuring a wireless LAN controller for QoS. Which 802.11e user priority tag should you apply
to voice applications?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
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D. 6
Answer: D
20. In a deployment using standalone access points, clients set up to authenticate with EAP-PEAP or
EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco-LEAP) cannot authenticate. When you inspect the Failed Attempts report on
the Cisco Secure ACS, you find this error: “Unknown network access server NAS.” Which problem may
have caused this failure?
A. misconfigured EAP type on the access point
B. misconfigured EAP type on the AAA server
C. misconfigured IP address of the access point on the AAA server
D. misconfigured IP address of the AAA server on the access point
Answer: C
21. On a WLAN controller, what is the default limit on the number of entries in the database that will be used
for local authentication?
A. 50
B. 128
C. 512
D. 1024
Answer: C
22. The WLAN controller maintains up to how many controller crash files?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: A
23. In order for a controller-based access point to be allowed to participate in aggressive load balancing, it
must have heard the client within how many seconds?
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A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B
24. If all client exclusion policies are enabled, on which number of tries will 802.1X authentications be
excluded using controller-based access points?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Answer: B
25. Which of the following statements explains why it is normally best to have more than one
controller-based access point participate in the containment of one rogue access point?
A. Multiple controller-based access points will load-balance the containment task using fewer resources
than a single access point.
B. Clients connected to the rogue access point may be out of the range of the controller-based access point
providing containment.
C. Each controller-based access point can handle only a limited amount of clients connected to the rogue
access points.
D. Clients connected to the rogue access point must be able to connect to the containment controller-based
access point.
Answer: B
26. During the installation of the Cisco WCS version 4.0, an error occurs. Where would you look for the
installation log, in order to learn more about this error?
A. in the Cisco WCS installation directory
B. at the root of the installation drive
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C. in the Cisco WCS\Logs directory
D. on the desktop of the server
Answer: D
27. You are trying to change the polling parameters used by the location manager via the Cisco WCS, and
your request is being denied. What is wrong?
A. Your login does not have the correct permissions.
B. You must wait for the location server to become available.
C. Polling values can be changed only on the location server.
D. Polling values can be changed only in the maintenance window.
Answer: A
28. Your customer has deployed a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance within its warehouse environment.
However, employees there have been experiencing problems when tracking objects using active RFID tags.
The RFID tag data is not being collected.
On which device would you verify that RFIDs have been enabled?
A. Cisco WCS
B. access point
C. location manager
D. wireless controller
Answer: D
29. Your customer has deployed a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance within its warehouse environment.
However, employees there have been experiencing problems when tracking objects using active RFID tags.
The RFID beacon rate is 10 seconds and you have discovered an issue with the RFID timeout value.
Where and how should the RFID value be changed?
A. on the Cisco WCS, to 95 seconds
B. on the Cisco WCS, to 45 seconds
C. on the wireless controller, to 95 seconds
D. on the wireless controller, to 45 seconds
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PrepKing.com Cisco 642-359 Sample Questions
Exam : Cisco 642-359
Title : Implementing Cisco Storage Network Solutions
1. For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Answer: ACE
2. While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Answer: B
3. Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Answer: C
4. Why would you use the fcanalyzer command?
A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric
B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric
C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames
D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link
Answer: C
5. The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N
E. E
Answer: C
6. What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Answer: A
7. How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: B
8. Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Answer: BCF
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PrepKing.com Cisco 642-654 Sample Questions
Exam : Cisco 642-654
Title : WAASSE – Wide Area Application Services for
System Engineers
1. Through which way does Cisco WAAS advanced compression DRE improve on traditional LZ
compression?
A. removing the transmission of previously-seen data
B. implementing a more aggressive, hardware-intensive version of the LZ compression algorithm
C. pre-positioning often-used file segments on the edge WAE appliances
D. comparing hashes of each file version to avoid unnecessary file synchronization
Answer: A
2. Refer to the following tools, which two can be used to determine what percentage of WAN traffic will be
optimized when you use a Cisco WAAS deployment? (Choose two.)
A. IP SLAs
B. NBAR
C. NetFlow
D. Tcpreplay
Answer: BC
3. Which LAN traffic management feature is fully supported by Cisco WAAS?
A. intrusion detection system
B. QoS
C. NBAR
D. MPLS
Answer: B
4. When WCCPv2 is running on a switch or router, what does it use to redirect traffic to a Cisco WAE?
A. Layer 4-7 inspection
B. GRE tunnels or Layer 2 direction
C. NBAR
D. MPLS tunnels or Layer 2 direction
Answer: B
5. Which method will most effectively provide management and monitoring failover for Cisco WAAS?
A. Use multiple Cisco WAE devices at the data center.
B. Use a primary and a secondary Central Manager.
C. Use multiple Cisco WAE devices at each client location.
D. Use a Cisco CDM at the data center and a Cisco CDM at the furthest client location.
Answer: B
6. In a Cisco WAAS environment, which TCP connection establishment messages should you examine if
your customer has sent you a TCP protocol trace and asked for your help in understanding why the WAE
appliances are failing to negotiate the correct, optimized policy?
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A. SYN and FIN
B. SYN and ACK
C. SYN and SYN ACK
D. ACK and SYN ACK
Answer: C
7. Your customer’s service provider manages its WAN infrastructure. The customer would like to deploy
Cisco WAAS to accelerate file services for a small number of branch offices, but the service provider
manages the routers at each site and your customer’s terms of service prohibit the customer from
customizing router configurations. Which interception method will you recommend?
A. PBR
B. ACE
C. WCCPv2
D. inline card
Answer: D
8. Which two options correctly identify the WAE file services integration modes available in Cisco WAAS?
(Choose two.)
A. transparent, in which the WAE appears as a node on the remote office LAN
B. transparent, in which the WAE does not appear as a node on the remote office LAN
C. non-transparent, in which the WAE appears as a node on the remote office LAN
D. non-transparent, in which the WAE does not appear as a node on the remote office LAN
Answer: BC
9. What is the function of the Catalyst 6500 ACE module in a Cisco WAAS solution?
A. to perform application acceleration functions for CIFS applications
B. to provide interception and load-balancing of WAE appliances in the data center
C. to support load balancing of large numbers of WAE appliances when deployed with WCCPv2
D. to provide WAN optimization capabilities in the data center
Answer: B
10. Which three are high-availability Cisco WAE solutions for a branch office? (Choose three.)
A. PBR
B. WCCP
C. firewall load-balancing Cisco WAE devices
D. multiple Cisco WAE devices with inline cards
Answer: ABD
11. Your customer has purchased multiple Cisco WAE appliances, but does not want to dedicate one WAE
for management purposes only. How would you advise this customer?
A. There must be at least one Central Manager available for configuration and management tasks.
B. The data center WAE can be used for both the Central Manager and Application Accelerator roles.
C. There is no need for a dedicated Central Manager; all configuration tasks can be performed on the
application accelerators using the WAE device CLI and GUI.
D. If one of the WAE appliances is configured as the Central Manager, then later, after all application
accelerators are registered and on line, the Central Manager WAE can be reconfigured as an application
accelerator.
Answer: A
12. Which three characteristics are provided by Cisco WAAS to enable the consolidation of infrastructure
from remote offices into the data center? (Choose three.)
A. policy-based configuration
B. auto-discovery of CIFS servers
C. transparent integration into existing networks
D. encapsulation of traffic between WAE appliances in GRE tunnels
Answer: ABC
13. In order to ensure the files are not stale, how often is the Cisco WAE running the edge file service able
to cache previously-seen files?
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A. every time the file is modified
B. every time the file is opened
C. according to a user-specified schedule
D. every hour
Answer: B
14. When you size a Cisco WAAS solution, you should assume that how many of the total number of
concurrent TCP connections per user will be optimized?
A. 1-2
B. 4-7
C. 14-20
D. 25-40
Answer: B
15. Refer to the following items, which high-availability method is used with inline interception?
A. WCCPv2
B. fail-to-wire
C. load balancing
D. load balancing with the ACE module
Answer: B
16. When using PBR, what do you need to configure to enable failover?
A. QoS
B. MPLS
C. IP SLAs
D. NetFlow
Answer: C
17. One of your customers would like to use Active Directory to manage authentication for WAE
administrative users. How to configure authentication in the Cisco WAAS Central Manager?
A. Configure Active Directory as the primary login method.
B. Configure TACACS+ services on the Active Directory server and set TACACS+ as the primary login
method.
C. Configure LDAP services on the Active Directory server and set LDAP as the primary login method.
D. Configure RADIUS services on the Active Directory server and set RADIUS as the primary login method.
Answer: A
18. Through which way does Cisco WAAS mark traffic so that network devices can apply QoS?
A. QoS settings cannot be controlled in Cisco WAAS
B. the WCCP options in the Central Manager
C. the DSCP options in the traffic classifier configuration
D. the DSCP options in the application definition
Answer: D
19. What are three benefits of using the Cisco WAE file blocking feature? (Choose three.)
A. eliminates data redundancy
B. reduces the use of network resources
C. minimizes the transfer of unsanctioned data
D. controls which file types are stored on the data center file server
Answer: BCD
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20. Which two Cisco WAE device modes are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Application Optimizer
B. Central WAE
C. Central Manager
D. Application Accelerator
Answer: CD
21. Can you tell me how to monitor optimization statistics for a given application across multiple Cisco WAE
devices?
A. Ensure that each application resides on a different subnet.
B. Create a device group for all Cisco WAE devices on which the application is optimized.
C. Create a separate application traffic policy for the application.
D. Create a location group for all Cisco WAE devices on which the application is optimized.
Answer: C
22. Your customer is using firewalls. What must be permitted to pass through the firewalls in order to allow
WAE auto-discovery?
A. TCP options
B. TCP port 139
C. TCP port 445
D. TCP SYN-ACK with data
Answer: A
23. The Cisco WAAS design of your customer calls for the Central Manager to be deployed on the Core
WAE, which is a WAE-612 with 2GB of RAM. The customer initially configured the WAE as an application
accelerator, and then issued the device mode central-manager command to enable Central Manager
service. Now the customer complains that the WAE is no longer accelerating traffic. Why?
A. The Central Manager and application accelerator cannot be deployed on the same WAE.
B. Central Manager is consuming too much CPU time on the WAE. The Central Manager service should be
implemented on a less-utilized edge WAE.
C. At least 4GB of RAM must be installed for the WAE to serve as both Central Manager and application
accelerator.
D. The device mode central-manager command must be issued before the device mode
application-accelerator command.
Answer: A
24. Which function is performed by Cisco WAAS directed mode?
A. to allow Cisco WAE devices to connect directly to the Central Manager
B. to allow clients to manage the Central Manager
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C. to allow clients to connect directly to the Central Manager
D. to allow third-party firewalls to support sequence number jumps with Cisco WAAS
Answer: D
25. Which two functions does the Central Manager provide in a Cisco WAAS environment? (Choose two.)
A. application acceleration
B. management of CIFS servers
C. application statistics monitoring
D. policy configuration and distribution
Answer: CD
26. What is the advantage of generic GRE?
A. Only one generic GRE tunnel can be created on the switch.
B. It is faster than WCCP GRE.
C. It speeds Layer 2 redirection.
D. It does not spike the CPU on a Cisco Catalyst 6500 because generic GRE processes packets in
hardware.
Answer: D
27. Which two benefits can we get by using Cisco WAAS with Cisco security devices such as Cisco Pix,
Cisco ASA, and Cisco IOS firewalls? (Choose two.)
A. The security devices will speed Cisco WAAS transport.
B. Cisco WAAS requires Cisco security devices to be installed.
C. The security devices can be configured to support Cisco WAAS automatic discovery.
D. The security devices support the TCP sequence number jump that Cisco WAAS uses.
Answer: CD
28. How can you monitor optimization statistics for a given application across multiple Cisco WAE devices?
A. Create a device group for all WAE devices on which that application is optimized.
B. Create a location group for all WAE devices on which that application is optimized.
C. Create a separate application traffic policy for each application.
D. Ensure that each application resides on a different subnet.
Answer: A
29. In the network, Cisco WAAS WAE devices should be deployed at which two points? (Choose two.)
A. at the branch, close to the edge router
B. at the data center, close to the servers
C. next to each VPN concentrator
D. on the data center firewalls
Answer: AB
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30. Which is the best way to integrate Cisco WAAS into a client’s network?
A. Deploy the Cisco WAE appliance with the inline card.
B. Deploy an inline card in an NM-WAE.
C. Configure WCCP on the Cisco WAE devices.
D. Configure WCCP on the routers.
Answer: C
31. Your customer is using PBR as the interception method on its routers. Which mechanism would you
recommend to ensure WAE availability and failover if a WAE fails?
A. enable NetFlow to track WAE appliances
B. enable IP SLAs to track WAE appliances
C. nothing, PBR automatically tracks WAE appliances
D. nothing, PBR does not support the tracking of WAE appliances
Answer: B
32. Which two entities are in charge of reestablishing the connections if a Cisco WAE that is optimizing
connections fails? (Choose two.)
A. the host on the side of the network on which the Cisco WAE failed
B. the remaining Cisco WAE from the original optimized pair
C. the WCCP router at the branch office
D. the WCCP router at the data center
Answer: AB
33. Which parameter should be taken into consideration while selecting a Cisco WAE model for a Cisco
WAAS deployment?
A. bandwidth of the largest WAN link
B. concurrent TCP sessions to be optimized
C. bandwidth of the smallest WAN link
D. total WAN throughput
Answer: B
34. Your customer wants to configure PortChannels on its Core WAE appliances to enable load balancing
across WAE interfaces.
Which WAE deployment model must this customer use?
A. on-router one-arm
B. on-router two-arm
C. off-router one-arm
D. off-router two-arm
Answer: C
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PrepKing.com Cisco 642-655Sample Questions
Exam : Cisco 642-655
Title : WAASFE-Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers
1. One of your customers is using firewalls. What need to be permitted to pass through firewalls in order to
allow WAE autodiscovery?
A. TCP port 139
B. TCP options
C. TCP port 445
D. TCP SYN-ACK with data
Answer: B
2. When a Cisco WAE that was optimizing connections fails, which two symptoms will appear in a TCP
trace? (Choose two.)
A. The receiving node receives TCP segments with invalid sequence numbers and resets the connection.
B. All optimized TCP connections are taken over by the receiving node.
C. The secondary WAE takes over the connection and the receiving node sees nothing.
D. All optimized TCP connections handled by that WAE are reset.
Answer: AD
3. After configuring a Cisco WAAS deployment using WCCPv2, you find that you can successfully ping a
data center server from a workstation in the branch office. However, when you attempt to start one of the
optimized applications, the application cannot communicate with the server. What is the most likely cause?
A. There is insufficient disk space on either the edge or core WAE.
B. You configured half-duplex mode on the WAE interfaces.
C. You configured autonegotiate duplex mode on the WAE interfaces.
D. You deployed the WAE on the same subnet as the users or servers.
Answer: D
4. In order to enable load balancing across WAE interfaces, which WAE deployment model should be used
to configure PortChannels on the core WAE appliances?
A. on-router, two-arm
B. off-router, one-arm
C. off-router, two-arm
D. on-router, one-arm
Answer: B
5. When implementing Windows authentication for WAE management, what is the maximum allowable time
skew between each WAE and the Windows domain controller?
A. 1 second
B. 5 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 300 seconds
Answer: D
6. What does the address 10.10.10.10:1 represent while managing a virtual blade through a Virtual Network
Computing client?
A. The virtual blade IP address and the CPU that is being used for virtualization.
B. The Central Manager’s IP address and the number of the virtual blade.
C. The IP address of the physical interface the virtual interface is bound to on the WAE and the virtual blade
number.
D. The IP address of the core WAE and the CPU used by the virtualization instance.
Answer: C
7. Your customer plans to implement Cisco WAAS using four WAE appliances in a load-balanced
configuration. Which feature must be supported on the switches to which the WAE appliances are
attached?
A. redirect exclusion
B. Layer 2 redirection
C. WCCPv2
D. WCCPv2 or PBR
Answer: C
8. In order to enable virtualization on a WAVE, which two steps should be taken? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the virtual blade.
B. Reload the WAE.
C. Install the transport license.
D. Install the virtual-blade license.
Answer: AD
9. Several months ago, your customer used WCCPv2 to implement Cisco WAAS. Yesterday, the customer
implemented an asymmetric routing configuration, and today the customer reported that Cisco WAAS is no
longer optimizing connections properly. Which command should be used to solve this problem?
A. show ip access-lists
B. show wccp routers
C. show route-map
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D. show service-policy
Answer: B
10. When must WCCPv2 redirect exclusion be configured on the routers?
A. when redirect in is used on any interface
B. when redirect in is used on the LAN interface only
C. when redirect in is used on the WAN interface only
D. when redirect out is used on any interface
Answer: D
11. During a Cisco WAAS deployment, what should be checked first if your customer is reporting poor
performance across all optimized applications?
A. Verify that duplex settings are configured correctly on all interfaces
B. Verify that WCCP is configured with one service group in the path of each direction of traffic flow.
C. Verify that only one Central Manager WAE is set to active.
D. Verify that PBR has a route map for each direction of traffic flow.
Answer: A
12. How to verify that the WAE has joined a Microsoft Windows domain correctly?
A. Use the Windows nbtstat command.
B. Click the Show Authentication Status button in Central Manager.
C. Use the Windows netstat command.
D. Execute the show windows-domain command on the WAE.
Answer: B
13. How many IP addresses are required for an in-line card in a redundant, serially clustered configuration?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. four
Answer: A
14. One of your customers has deployed Cisco WAAS using ACE for traffic interception. The customer
complains that traffic is not being optimized. Which command will be used to solve this problem?
A. router# show wccp services
B. WAE-CORE# show wccp routers
C. WAE-CORE# show ip access-lists
D. ACE/Admin# show rserver detail
Answer: D
15. In a Cisco WAAS deployment, what should you check first if your customer is reporting poor
performance across all optimized applications?
A. Verify that full duplex is configured on all interfaces.
B. Verify that only one Central Manager WAE is set to active.
C. Verify that PBR has a route map for each direction of traffic flow.
D. Verify that WCCP is configured with one service group in the path of each direction of traffic flow.
Answer: A
16. Which WAAS mobile tool can be used to verify that data is moving between the client and the WAAS
mobile server?
A. the Active Sessions Traffic screen
B. the Server Sessions Traffic screen
C. the Active Server Traffic screen
D. the main WAAS Mobile Client Manager screen
Answer: A
17. Your customer has configured each Cisco WAE to belong to multiple device groups for monitoring
purposes. However, the customer wants to ensure that the policies are applied to the device from one
specific device group. What should you do?
A. You should configure an explicit policy device group.
B. You should configure the other device groups as monitoring-only.
C. You should rejoin the WAE to the desired device group.
D. You must remove the WAE from all other device groups.
Answer: A
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18. Cisco WAAS is a powerful application acceleration and WAN optimization solution that accelerates the
performance of any TCP-based application delivered across a WAN. Which two benefits does the WAAS
integration feature on the Cisco IOS Intrusion Prevention System and Cisco IOS Firewall allow? (Choose
two.)
A. The correct Cisco IOS router feature will determine distant WAAS devices for optimization.
B. This feature is the only way to speed up WAAS.
C. This feature permits the sequence number jump initiated by Cisco WAAS.
D. This WAAS feature supports TCP optimization used for distinguishing distant WAAS endpoints.
Answer: CD
19. You work as a network technician for your company. You are asked to configure a Central Manager
WAE cluster for your customer. After the power cord is accidentally unplugged from the primary Central
Manager WAE, the standby Central Manager WAE did not automatically assume the primary role. What
should you do?
A. You must manually initiate failover and fallback processes on the WAE.
B. You must manually copy the Central Manager database to the standby Central Manager WAE.
C. You should make sure the two Central Manager WAE appliances are on the same subnet.
D. You should verify that the datafeed.pollrate setting is configured properly.
Answer: A
20. How do you access the WAE Central Manager GUI?
A. http://(ip_addr_of_WAE)
B. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):443
C. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):8080
D. https://(ip_addr_of_WAE):8443
Answer: D
21. Which setting should be used in the “Boot from” field in the virtual blade configuration when an
operating system is first installed through an CD ISO image onto a virtual blade?
A. cd-rom
B. floppy disk
C. WAAS /local1/local/vb folder
D. /local1/vbs/win2k8.iso
Answer: A
22. How many baseline device groups can be configured for the acceleration feature set?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. as many as needed
Answer: A
23. What is the function of Application Traffic Policies in a Cisco WAAS environment?
A. to associate a flow with a WAN connection and associate the WAN connection with an application
accelerator
B. to associate a flow with a WAE and associate the optimized flow with a device group
C. to associate a flow with an optimization and associate the optimized flow with an application definition
D. to associate a flow with a Central Manager and associate the optimized flow with an application definition
Answer: C
24. One of your customers has configured traffic interception by use of PBR and four core WAE appliances.
The customer has discovered that Cisco WAAS is not load-balancing across the WAE appliances, and
would like to know how to diagnose the problem. What will you tell your customer?
A. PBR uses only the first-available next hop; only one WAE is used at a time.
B. The inbound access list on the core router is configured incorrectly.
C. The PBR route map on the edge router is configured incorrectly.
D. IP SLAs are configured incorrectly.
Answer: A
25. TCP options are added to which TCP connection establishment messages during Cisco WAAS
autodiscovery?
A. ACK and SYN-ACK
B. SYN and ACK
C. SYN and SYN-ACK
D. SYN and RST
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PrepKing.com Cisco 642-651 Sample Questions
Exam : Cisco 642-651
Title : Cisco Wide Area Application Services for System Engineers
1. You have configured a Central Manager WAE cluster for your customer. After a technician accidentally unplugs the power cord from the primary Central Manager WAE, the network administrator calls you to complain that the standby Central Manager WAE did not automatically assume the primary role. What should you tell this administrator?
A. You should verify that the datafeed.pollrate setting is configured properly.
B. You should make sure the two Central Manager WAE appliances are on the same subnet
C. You must manually copy the Central Manager database to the standby Central Manager WAE.
D. You must manually initiate failover and fallback processes on the WAE.
Answer: D
2. When using PBR, what do you need to configure to enable failover?
A. QoS
B. MPLS
C. IP SLAs
D. NetFlow
Answer: C
3. In a Cisco WAAS environment, which TCP connection establishment messages should you examine if your customer has sent you a TCP protocol trace and asked for your help in understanding why the WAE appliances are failing to negotiate the correct, optimized policy?
A. SYN and FIN
B. SYN and ACK
C. SYN and SYN ACK
D. ACK and SYN ACK
Answer: C
4. When you size a Cisco WAAS solution, you should assume that how many of the total number of concurrent TCP connections per user will be optimized?
A. 1-2
B. 4-7
C. 14-20
D. 25-40
Answer: B
5. Which two options correctly identify the WAE file services integration modes available in Cisco WAAS? (Choose two.)
A. transparent, in which the WAE appears as a node on the remote office LAN
B. transparent, in which the WAE does not appear as a node on the remote office LAN
C. non-transparent, in which the WAE appears as a node on the remote office LAN
D. non-transparent, in which the WAE does not appear as a node on the remote office LAN
Answer: BC
6. Your customer’s Cisco WAAS design calls for the Central Manager to be deployed on the Core WAE, which is a WAE-612 with 2GB of RAM. The customer initially configured the WAE as an application accelerator, and then issued the device mode central-manager command to enable Central Manager service. Now the customer reports that the WAE is no longer accelerating traffic. What is the problem?
A. The Central Manager and application accelerator cannot be deployed on the same WAE.
B. At least 4GB of RAM must be installed for the WAE to serve as both Central Manager and application accelerator.
C. The device mode central-manager command must be issued before the device mode application-accelerator command.
D. Central Manager is consuming too much CPU time on the WAE. The Central Manager service should be implemented on a less-utilized edge WAE.
Answer: A
7. Your customer has purchased multiple Cisco WAE appliances, but does not want to dedicate one WAE for management purposes only. How would you advise this customer?
A. There must be at least one Central Manager available for configuration and management tasks.
B. The data center WAE can be used for both the Central Manager and Application Accelerator roles.
C. There is no need for a dedicated Central Manager; all configuration tasks can be performed on the application accelerators using the WAE device CLI and GUI.
D. If one of the WAE appliances is configured as the Central Manager, then later, after all application accelerators are registered and on line, the Central Manager WAE can be reconfigured as an application accelerator.
Answer: A
8. Which LAN traffic management feature is fully supported by Cisco WAAS?
A. intrusion detection system
B. QoS
C. NBAR
D. MPLS
Answer: B
