CompTIA CTT+ Essentials Exam

• Exam Number/Code : TK0-201
• Exam Name : CompTIA CTT+ Essentials Exam
• Questions and Answers : 553 Q&As

Download Pass4sure TK0-201 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe TK0-201 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking TK0-201 Dumps from the link below

Download CompTIA TK0-201 Dumps

PrepKing.com CompTIA TK0-201 Sample Questions

Exam : CompTIA TK0-201
Title : CompTIA CTT+ Essentials Exam

1. During introductions, the trainer asks students to give not only their names, but also their title and a detailed description of what products or services their employers provide. The instructor would BEST use this information as a:
A. reference point for analogies to bring the material closer to the students.
B. way to help students get a feel for who has the most experience with the product.
C. method of finding students who may be able to help others later in the class.
D. means for building teamwork among the learners to help them feel closer to one another.
Answer: A

2. An instructor is demonstrating acceptable social practices in which of the following situations?
A. The instructor optimizes humor that arises from the context of the learning situation.
B. The instructor avoids the use of humor in the presentation of course materials so that no learner is offended.
C. The instructor allows learners to use humor that may appear to be offensive in some situations, but is deemed acceptable to the group.
D. The instructor discourages humor in the instructional setting.
Answer: A

3. Which of the following should a trainer take into consideration when providing motivational incentives?
A. They should be perceived by the learners as appropriate and necessary.
B. They should reflect group and not individual interests.
C. They should not require any type of instructional adjustment.
D. They should be given generously and freely to learners.
Answer: A

4. An inexperienced instructor asks a seasoned instructor to observe a class. The experienced instructor notes that the new instructor is very knowledgeable about the subject matter, but fails to interact with the learners. Which of the following actions would MOST likely improve the situation?
A. After class, the experienced instructor should suggest the use of more questioning and hands-on activities within the class.
B. The experienced instructor should politely interrupt the class and begin directing questions so that the example is clear to the new instructor.
C. The experienced instructor should compliment the new instructor’s knowledge of the subject and avoid giving criticisms in support of building confidence.
D. The experienced instructor should suggest the use of activities that capitalize on the new instructor’s strengths, rather than techniques that may cause discomfort.
Answer: A

5. An experienced instructor has just completed an instructional assignment that the instructor judges to have been unsuccessful. The instructor believes that the difficulty experienced was due in part to the scheduling of the course, which conflicted with the work schedules of many of the learners. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing for the instructor to do in this situation?
A. Inform the learners’ supervisors that the planning for the course was inadequate.
B. Downplay the significance of learner comments since the course was not successful.
C. Report observations along with comments from the learners to the training manager.
D. Try to obtain the learners’ work schedules to support the instructor’s judgment about the cause of the problem.
Answer: C

6. An instructor is unusually youthful in appearance. When teaching groups of older learners, this instructor has noticed that they are frequently reluctant to accept the instructor’s competence to teach them. The instructor has just received a teaching assignment for a group that will be primarily made up of learners 15 to 20 years older. Which of the following should be the instructor’s FIRST instructional priority?
A. Demonstrate acceptable personal conduct.
B. Demonstrate content expertise.
C. Demonstrate flexibility in response to learner needs and interests.
D. Demonstrate effective questioning techniques.
Answer: B

7. Training that teaches needed job skills are a powerful training tool for which of the following reasons?
A. Learners are more at ease with the skills.
B. Instructors find it much easier to prepare and teach.
C. Learners know why the skills are relevant to them.
D. Instructors know the rationale for the skills.
Answer: C

8. For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that a trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement that explains why the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal.
GOAL:To lead beginner-level learners to a thorough understanding of a concept that has just been presented to them
ACTION: Frame systematic questions in a way that requires the learners first to apply the concept and then to recall facts regarding the concept.
A. Likely, because the learners will have the benefit of guidance from the instructor.
B. Likely, because the questioning technique will enable learner success and confidence.
C. Unlikely, because the instructor is requiring learners to begin by responding to a cognitively higher-level question.
D. Unlikely, because planned systematic questioning rarely aids learning.
Answer: C

Download CompTIA TK0-201 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 BI Administrator

• Exam Number/Code : COG-122
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Administrator
• Questions and Answers : 47 Q&As

Download Pass4sure COG-122 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe COG-122 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking COG-122 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS COG-122 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS COG-122 Sample Questions
1. What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database credentials
when they run reports?
A. Signon
B. Single signon
C. Collation sequence
D. Connection sequence
Answer: A
2. When creating the following Cognos 8 data sources, which one requires specifying a local path or a
network path?
A. Cognos Planning – Contributor
B. Cognos PowerCube
C. XML
D. SAP BW
Answer: B
3. From within Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire Cognos 8
application into a new and empty environment?
A. Content store
B. Public Folders
C. Cognos namespace
D. Content manager
Answer: A
4. When an administrator exports entries from Cognos 8, what file gets created?
A. Content store file
B. Object extract file
C. Deployment archive file
D. Configuration export file
Answer: C
PrepKing.com
5. The Report Upgrade task in Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report specifications.
Which of the following is one option?
A. By folder
B. By role
C. By group
D. By namespace
Answer: A
6. An administrator wants to show the folder hierarchy of Cognos Connection in a portlet. Which portlet
must the administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
Answer: C
7. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Answer: C
8. An administrator creates a shortcut that points to an invoice report. What happens if the invoice report is
renamed?
A. The shortcut contains the original name and can be used to view the latest output before the report was
renamed.
B. The shortcut contains the original name and no longer works because the link to the report is broken.
C. Cognos Connection automatically updates the report name in the shortcut, and the shortcut remains fully
PrepKing.com
functional.
D. Cognos Connection automatically deletes the shortcut.
Answer: B
9. A user must be able to only view the contents of the Americas Inventory folder. What permissions must
be granted to the user for the folder?
A. Write
B. Execute
C. Traverse
D. Set policy
Answer: C
10. Before sending a report by email, where must the administrator specify the mail server account?
A. Cognos Connection
B. Cognos Administration
C. Framework Manager
D. Cognos Configuration
Answer: D
11. An administrator wants to email a report to a recipient; however, this recipient is not part of the Cognos
security system. What can the administrator create in Cognos Administration?
A. Role
B. User
C. Signon
D. Contact
Answer: D
12. In Cognos Connection, how can an administrator specify different prompt values and run options for a
report without modifying the report itself?
A. Schedule a report.
PrepKing.com
B. Create a report view.
C. Produce a report output.
D. Burst a report.
Answer: B
13. Where must an administrator set up package-based drill-through?
A. Analysis Studio
B. Cognos Connection
C. Framework Manager
D. Cognos Configuration
Answer: B
14. An administrator has set up drill-through access in a package to run the target Query Studio report. By
default, what happens when a user clicks the drill-through link?
A. The report runs in Cognos Viewer.
B. The most recent report output is shown.
C. The report runs and opens for editing in Query Studio.
D. The user is prompted to run or edit the report.
Answer: A
15. When an administrator sets up package-based drill-through, what does the scope represent?
A. The format of the drill-through target report.
B. The source report or analysis for the drill-through.
C. The target report in the drill definition that is shown to the user.
D. The Run options for the target report.
Answer: C
16. Which statement describes Cognos 8 BI architecture?
A. Communication between components is SOAP on HTTP Protocol.
B. The BIBus is the communication tier of the Cognos 8 BI architecture.
PrepKing.com
C. The two-tiered architecture is component based and typically separated by firewalls.
D. The content manager consists of a set of protocols governing communication among Cognos BI
services.
Answer: A
17. Which is a function of the first tier in the Cognos 8 BI architecture?
A. Authenticate users to the correct namespace.
B. Pass requests to a Cognos 8 BI dispatcher for processing.
C. Render the Cognos Connection and Metric Studio interfaces.
D. Start Cognos 8 BI services configured and enabled on a computer.
Answer: B
18. Which service is responsible for generating an HTML page?
A. Job service
B. Report service
C. Delivery service
D. Content Manager service
Answer: B
19. What is true about servlets and services?
A. The Content Manager and dispatcher servlets run within the Java servlet container configured for
Cognos 8.
B. If a service fails, users get email notification.
C. The report service and batch report service run within the Java servlet container.
D. The report service and batch report service are Java-based applications.
Answer: A
20. What is one of the purposes of Tomcat in the Cognos 8 BI environment?
A. Acts as a Java servlet container for the report and batch report services.
B. Monitors the dispatcher and all user requests are lost upon failure.
PrepKing.com
C. Monitors the Cognos 8 service and restarts the service upon failure.
D. Acts as a Java servlet container for the presentation service.
Answer: D
21. Which statement is true about the definition of the Application tier?
A. The Application tier hosts the dispatcher and content manager that reside in a servlet container.
B. The Application tier hosts the dispatcher, which includes the Cognos Application Firewall and Access
Manager.
C. The Application tier hosts the BI server and the content store.
D. The Application tier hosts the content manager, which contains data such as a report specification,
Cognos namespace, and so on.
Answer: A
22. When installing and configuring a standby Content Manager, what must the administrator do to ensure
failover?
A. Configure the content store to know the location of all standby Content Managers.
B. Install the first standby Content Manager on the machine with the highest processor speed.
C. Ensure that services are started on the machines hosting the standby Content Managers before they are
started on the machine hosting the default active Content Manager.
D. Configure authentication providers the same way on all machines hosting Content Managers.
Answer: D
23. When the user is accessing a report on a remote computer, what configuration must be made to avoid a
Cognos Application Firewall error?
A. Anonymous Access must be set to false.
B. The third-party VSS checking must be enabled.
C. The Cognos Application Firewall must be enabled on an internal dispatcher.
D. The name of the remote computer must be added to the list of valid domain or hosts.
Answer: D
PrepKing.com
24. Below is a partial diagram of the processing that occurs when a user launches saved output in Cognos
Connection and views it in Cognos Viewer. At the level of the dispatcher, which of the Cognos 8 services is
used to process the request?
A. Report service
B. Presentation service
C. Batch report service
D. Delivery service
Answer: B
25. Which of the following is true regarding the Cognos 8 gateway?
A. The gateway can be configured to send requests directly to the Content Manager.
B. For failover, the gateway can be configured to know the location of multiple dispatchers.
C. When more than one dispatcher is available, the gateway can automatically balance the load of requests
by sending them to any dispatcher.
D. If the gateway is installed on a machine that is separate from where other Cognos 8 components are
installed, the services for the gateway must be started first.
Answer: B
26. Computer 1 is set up as a gateway.
Computer 2 is set up as a report server.
Computer 3 is set up as a report server and a failover content manager.
Computer 4 is set up as the default content manager.
Where does the administrator need to disable anonymous access?
A. Computers 1, 2, and 3 only
B. Computers 3 and 4 only
C. Computers 2 and 3 only
D. Computer 4 only
PrepKing.com
Answer: B
27. Computer 1 is set up as a gateway.
Computer 2 is set up as a report server.
Computer 3 is set up as a report server.
Computer 4 is set up as a content manager.
To avoid performance downgrades as a result of many users running reports interactively, which of the
following configurations will achieve improved performance for report processing?
A. Disable the report service and batch report service on Computer 2.
B. Disable the presentation service on Computer 2.
C. Disable the report service on Computer 3.
D. Disable the presentation service on Computer 4.
Answer: B
28. Computer 1 is set up as a gateway.
Computer 2 is set up as a report server.
Computer 3 is set up as a report server.
Computer 4 is set up as a content manager.
When configuring, why must the administrator configure and start services for the machine hosting the
content manager first?
A. To ensure that the Gateway URI property is specified on the content manager computer before the
dispatcher is configured and services started.
B. To ensure that the certificate authority service is available to issue certificates to other computers in the
distributed installation.
C. To ensure that the BI server can connect to the underlying reporting data sources.
D. To ensure that the Dispatcher URIs for gateway property is specified on the content manger computer
before the dispatcher is configured and services started.
Answer: B
29. Which is a valid option for load balancing requests across report servers?

Download COGNOS COG-122 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 Controller Developer

• Exam Number/Code : COG-200
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 Controller Developer
• Questions and Answers : 94 Q&As

Download Pass4sure COG-200 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe COG-200 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking COG-200 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS COG-200 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS COG-200 Sample Questions
1. The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions will
a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals.
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form.
C. Enter data into group journals.
D. Create company journals.
Answer: C
2. When is a group company used?
A. When manual journals are needed.
B. When many parent companies are needed.
C. When consolidated figures need to be stored.
D. When automatic journals need to be created.
Answer: C
3. When creating a company, the administrator selects a consolidation type. What does the consolidation
type allow the administrator to do?
A. Use the same company in different structures.
B. Create separate local currency on subsidiary.
C. Create accounts.
D. Create specific dimensions.
Answer: A
4. How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application’s rules?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Validate Data menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation Types – Define menu
Answer: A
PrepKing.com
5. When using a non-manual consolidation type, when would the administrator update the consolidation
structure?
A. When importing investments for a parent company.
B. When changing the company structure.
C. When adding an account.
D. When entering period data.
Answer: B
6. An administrator is setting up an account structure for a Controller application. The administrator is going
to reconcile the values in account 8999 (Profit and Loss for the Year) against those in account 2099 (Net
Profit). In the screen capture below, what does the + code indicate?
A. This year’s closing balance will be copied during reconciliation.
B. The previous year’s closing balance will be copied during reconciliation.
C. Reconciliation will be performed for the same period and actuality.
D. Reconciliation will be performed to the previous year’s closing balance.
Answer: C
7. An administrator wants to make it easier for end users to enter data into account 1310 (Investments in
Subsidiaries) by enabling the investment register. What investments code must the administrator specify for
this account?
A. I – in Group Companies
B. E – in External Companies
PrepKing.com
C. J – Intercompany with Transaction Currency
D. M – Intercompany with Margin %
Answer: A
8. A Controller administrator wants to track the changes between opening and closing balances of goodwill.
What type of account must the administrator create?
A. Income statement account
B. Movement account
C. Intercompany account
D. Cash account
Answer: B
9. Before movement accounts can be generated, where must the administrator enable the system for
movement accounts prior to their creation?
A. Define Company Structure window
B. Define Account Structure window, Overview tab
C. General Configuration dialog box, General 2 tab
D. Shareholdings and Investments window
Answer: C
10. An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base accounts
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Automatic journals
Answer: C
11. An administrator wants to create a non-integrated movement account to track the sale of buildings.
PrepKing.com
Which of the following is a valid account type for this movement account?
A. C – Expenses
B. R – Statistical account debit balance sheet account
C. E – Equity
D. I – Intercompany without Transaction Currency
Answer: B
12. An administrator wants to create an integrated movement account to track the purchase of machinery
and equipment. Which of the following is a valid account type for this movement account?
A. L – Liabilities
B. R – Statistical account debit balance sheet account
C. A – Assets
D. U – Statistical account credit profit and loss account
Answer: C
13. When creating an integrated movement account, what must an administrator connect to the base
account?
A. Closing balance of the movement account
B. One or more linked structures
C. One or more company journals
D. Opening balance of the group journal
Answer: A
14. An administrator has created a non-integrated movement account to track the closing balance of
machinery and equipment. What must the administrator specify for both the base account and the
movement account to ensure that the data is entered correctly?
A. Reconciliation code
B. Conversion code
C. Intercompany code
D. Investments code
PrepKing.com
Answer: A
15. An administrator wants to enhance data analysis by adding extended dimensions to the Controller
application (for example, to represent the products that the company sells). What is the maximum number
of levels for extended dimensions that the administrator can add to the system?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Answer: C
16. An administrator wants end users to be able to carry out currency simulations. For example, a user may
want to see how actual results would compare to budgeted results if the effects of currency rates were
eliminated. What type of actuality must the administrator use for this purpose?
A. Weekly
B. Budget (BU) predefined actuality
C. Linked
D. Actual (AC) predefined actuality
Answer: C
17. End users report data on a weekly basis. They want to be able to work with as many weeks as possible
in a single fiscal year. When configuring the application, what is the maximum number of weeks that an
administrator can specify for a year?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B
18. What is the purpose of the advanced account view setting?
PrepKing.com
A. It shows the account codes in a flat list view in the Define Account Structure window.
B. It shows the account codes and the account short names in the Define Account Structure window.
C. It shows the account codes, account names, and related company names in the Define Account
Structure window.
D. It shows the account codes, account names and summation rules in a tree structure view in the Account
Structure window.
Answer: D
19. The controller has legal data with no extended dimensions and needs to lock these values once
reconciled. They also have detailed extended dimensions management data that should reconcile to the
legal data, but kept separate from the legal data. How can the Controller achieve this?
A. Create separate companies.
B. Create separate consolidation types.
C. Create linked actualities.
D. Create two submissions.
Answer: D
20. An administrator created multiple submissions for the period 0812. Why would an administrator create
multiple submissions for the same period?
A. To enter data from multiple companies.
B. To create multiple forms.
C. To enter data for different reporting occasions.
D. To create a report book with different reports.
Answer: C
21. The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use
Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready.
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started.
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared.
PrepKing.com
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready.
Answer: C
22. In Controller’s General Configuration, an administrator can specify that reconciliation is to be performed
by journal type. On what other basis can reconciliation be performed?
A. by form structure
B. by closing version
C. by structure version
D. by company structure
Answer: B
23. Company A has a reconciliation difference in Sales (income account) of -1,000, and a Cost of Sales
(cost account) of 1,001. The general configuration indicates that the status will be updated based on Total
Difference. The largest difference that will be accepted for reconciliation is 1,000. What is the status for
Company A?
A. Reconciled, because the net Active/Passive difference is 0.
B. Processing, because Cost of Sales exceeds the largest acceptable difference.
C. Reconciled, because the total difference between Sales and Cost of Sales is 101.
D. Processing, because Active/Passive difference must always be zero.
Answer: D
24. Which of the following best explains the difference between the currency conversion difference
account1 and conversion difference account2?
A. Conversion difference account1 is used for Method 1 currency conversion and account2 is used for
Method 2
B. Conversion difference account1 is used if the BS/PL reserve account is non-integrated; account2 is used
if the BS/PL account is integrated.
C. Conversion difference account1 is used to book positive currency conversion; account2 is used to book
negative currency conversion.
D. Conversion difference account1 is often the unrestricted reserves account and account2, the restricted
PrepKing.com
reserve account.
Answer: C
25. Where do the values for the currency conversion difference account1 and account2 come from?
A. From reconciliation of automatic journals. Account1 records differences from BS accounts; account2
records differences from PL accounts.
B. From reconciliation of the reported version. The differences are recorded in the integrated reserves when
using the current method.
C. From active/passive reconciliation. The positive or negative difference is calculated from the Balance
Sheet.
D. From reconciliation of automatic journals. The differences are recorded in the non-integrated reserves
when using the current method.
Answer: C
26. Company ABC uses the temporal method of currency conversion, whereby gains/losses on translation
are posted directly to the income statement. Which of the following shows a correct setting for the currency
conversion difference in the general configuration? (Account 2085 = Translation Difference)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Download COGNOS COG-200 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 BI Multidimensional Author

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-145
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Multidimensional Author
• Questions and Answers : 59 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-145 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-145 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-145 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-145 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-145 Sample Questions
1.Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A
2.If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
3.To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Levels
D. MUNs
Answer: B
4.A data source has a Time hierarchy, a Products hierarchy, and a Retailers hierarchy. What are the
preferred techniques the report author would use to focus reports for this type of a data source?
A. Dimensional functions and slicers
B. Months and product lines
C. Intermediates and descendants
D. Detail filters and summary filters
Answer: A
PrepKing.com
5.A report author is working with an OLAP data source. The report author creates a query that uses a
caption function on a member and applies a string function. What is a possible consequence of this action?
A. Using these dimensional methods will not work with an OLAP data source.
B. The mapped string values will not pass through to the target report.
C. This action will remove the caption from the report layout, but leave the query in the report.
D. Mixing dimensional styles and relational styles in a single query can create unexpected results.
Answer: D
6.What kind of authoring style uses the filter function?
A. Relational
B. Configured
C. Dimensional
D. Default
Answer: C
7.In the data source shown, what dimensional component is selected?
A. Dimension
B. Hierarchy
C. Namespace
D. Level
Answer: B
8.When a report author inserts Revenue into the Measures area of a blank crosstab report, which of the
PrepKing.com
following statements is correct?
A. The report author has implicitly set the default measure for the crosstab report to be Revenue.
B. The report author must lock the report layout to preserve the Revenue measure.
C. The report author has declared a currentMember function to return the Revenue data.
D. The report author must validate the expression for Revenue to ensure there are no crosstab errors.
Answer: A
9.Which of the following are dimensional objects?
A. Detail filter and summary filter
B. Query subject and relationship cardinality
C. Slicer and string function
D. Level and member
Answer: D
10.A report author can use a slicer to do what?
A. Make the report database smaller and efficient
B. Provide context to intersection values
C. Reduce the number of members on the edge of the crosstab.
D. Generate a zero suppression filter in the rows
Answer: B
11.A crosstab report has product lines in the rows, years in the columns, and revenue as the measure. In
Query Explorer, from the source tree, the report author drags the order method Telephone to the Slicer
pane. Why does the report author do this?
A. To help to set the context.
B. To create an ordered set.
C. To return only one tuple.
D. To aggregate the telephone member.
Answer: A
PrepKing.com
12.The report author uses the filter function to focus data in a report, but the results are unexpected. What
did the report author overlook when filtering the data?
A. Relational detail
B. Products hierarchy
C. Report context
D. Root levels
Answer: C
13.A report author creates a crosstab as shown. What is the default measure of the report?
A. Mountaineering Equipment
B. Camping Equipment
C. Gross profit
D. Revenue
Answer: D
14.In a crosstab, Campaign is in the rows area, Order method type is in the columns area, and Quantity is
the measure. Campaign and Order method type are specified in the query. The report runs, displaying
quantity values for all years. Why does this happen?
A. The dimension member from that dimension is implied.
B. The order method member from that dimension is implied.
C. The aggregate member from that dimension is implied.
D. The default member from that dimension is implied.
Answer: D
15.Which statement is true about MUNs?
A. They are manually assigned.
B. They are used to retrieve members from the data source.
C. They are created by the report author.
PrepKing.com
D. They are used to retrieve levels from the data source.
Answer: B
16.What is true about MUNs?
A. A MUN is a business key that allows parameters to pass through the query.
B. A MUN is a key with a unique value at one level.
C. A MUN contains the fully qualified path to a member.
D. A MUN is a category code that is generated when the cube is built.
Answer: C
17.Assuming that Star products and Husky products are sets, which statement below is correct about the
sets in the graphic?
A. Each set is a grouping of members from different hierarchies.
B. The report creates a query for each member of the set.
C. The query displays each set as all the members of the level.
D. Each set can be sorted and aggregated.
Answer: D
18.The sales manager requires a crosstab report to display the top 3 sales people for the month.
Considering that an OLAP data source is used, what will the report author use when creating this report?
A. A set expression
B. An axis title
C. A percent of base calculation
D. The hierarchize function
Answer: A
PrepKing.com
19.When would a report author define a set?
A. To create a slicer to focus on a specific number of years of data in a report.
B. To change the crosstab node member properties for a level.
C. To use as a summary function to return the total of the specified members.
D. To return members from different hierarchies of the same dimension.
Answer: A
20.Which term below best describes the selected cell in the crosstab?
A. Level
B. Slicer
C. Tuple
D. Product
Answer: C
21.A report author creates a revenue report from an OLAP data source. On the rows, there are nested
levels, each from different dimensions having a large number of members. The report author filters out
empty rows using the expression “[Revenue] > 0″. When running this report, there is poor performance.
What could cause this?
A. Complex dimensional expressions are incompatible with an OLAP data source.
B. Filtering on measure values is incompatible with an OLAP data source.
C. Limiting the crosstab measures with a filter function.
D. A relational filter was applied.
Answer: D
22.A report runs, and is 433 pages long, with 19,010 rows. Many of the rows are blank. The report author
uses a filter function to filter nulls, and runs the report again. The result is 143 pages, with 6273 rows, and
none of the rows are blank. What filtering style did the report author decide to use?
A. Conventional
PrepKing.com
B. Dimensional
C. Relational
D. Functional
Answer: B
23.The report author wants to create a report to compare the sales of product types for special sales
promotions in 2005 and 2006, but the report will exclude regular sales. Which style of authoring and which
function will the report author use to create this report from a cube data source?
A. Relational authoring style, except function
B. Dimensional authoring style, minus function
C. Dimensional authoring style, except function
D. Relational authoring style, minus function
Answer: C
24.To display all individual campaigns in a crosstab report, a report author could use the expression
set([TrailChef Campaign],[EverGlow Campaign],[Course Pro Campaign]). Instead, the report author
decides to use the parent member of the campaigns in the set expression “children([All Campaigns])”.
Which statement is true about the method that was used?
A. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the report author must modify the
expression.
B. In the future, when a campaign is deleted or new ones are added, the unmodified expression will be
valid.
C. The report author should not have used the method chosen, as the first method is best in this situation.
D. To be accurate, the report author should avoid using a set expression.
Answer: B
25.Which of the following is true if a report author nests members in a crosstab report?
A. Nested members are also known as complex members.
B. The inner member must be on the level immediately below the outer member.
C. Nested members must be members of hierarchies, not of the Measures folder.
PrepKing.com
D. It is possible to nest members from different dimensions.
Answer: D
26.The following expression is used in a crosstab report: filter([sales_and_marketing]. [Product
brand].[Product brand].[Product brand type],[Revenue]<100000000). There are 26 product brand types in
the OLAP data source. Why does the report only return 11 product brand type rows?
A. A relational function was used to filter on the measure values, not the members.
B. A dimensional function was used to filter on each column.
C. A relational function was used to filter on the members, not the measure values.
D. A dimensional function was used to filter on the total of the opposite edge.
Answer: D
27.Which of the following statements is true about a slicer?
A. It keeps the summary column in the report, and removes the detail columns.
B. It affects the values of the cells of the report but not the rows or columns.
C. It determines which set of members are displayed on the edges of the report.
D. It removes all blank rows in the report to make it more focused.
Answer: B
28.What is the default behavior when drilling down on an edge in a crosstab report?
A. The level drilled on is replaced with the entire level below it.
B. The edge expression is replaced with the children of the item drilled on.

Download COGNOS BI0-145 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 BI Scorecard Developer

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-142
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Scorecard Developer
• Questions and Answers : 77 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-142 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-142 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-142 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-142 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-142 Sample Questions
1.Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A
2.If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
3.Which of the following is a step in the process of loading data from a Cognos Planning system into a
Metric Studio application?
A. Create a Framework Manager model in Metric Designer.
B. Transfer the metrics to the Contributor store.
C. Create a Framework Manager model from published Contributor data.
D. Transfer live Analyst data directly into the metric store.
Answer: C
4.Which of the following sets of metrics would be MOST appropriate for the balanced scorecard model?
A. Number of new hires, Turnover rate, Head count, Average age
B. Revenue, customer satisifaction, product quality, percent of employees trained
C. Sales, revenue per sq ft, product quality, number of returns
D. Global revenue, revenue for services, revenue for product sales, revenue for support
Answer: B
5.A scorecard application has been implemented using the balanced model, where four scorecards were
created for each perspective. Which perspectives contain the following metrics?
defects per unit
PrepKing.com
number of returns
number of recalls
A. Financial and Customer
B. Customer and Internal Process
C. Internal Process and Learning and Growth
D. Financial and Learning and Growth
Answer: B
6.The data that needs to be populated in the metric store requires consolidation and data cleansing from
various data sources. What is the MOST appropriate data loading technique to accomplish this?
A. Manual entry
B. Metric Designer
C. SQL scripts (structured query language)
D. An ETL tool (extraction, transformation, and loading)
Answer: D
7.A scorecard contains metrics that were loaded for today, last month, and last quarter. What view is used
to see all the metric statuses at once?
A. Most recent values
B. Monthly level values
C. Quarterly level values
D. Yearly level values
Answer: A
8.Americas Derived Performance is a derived index metric based on all the metrics in the Americas
scorecard. Using the most recent view, the status for Americas Derived Performance is not showing. What
must a user do to see the status of Americas Derived Performance?
PrepKing.com
A. Select calendar level as Month and calendar period as December.
B. Select calendar level as Quarter and calendar period as Q4.
C. Select calendar level as Year and calendar period as 2007.
D. Select show the to-date status values for open periods as of Dec 1, 2007.
Answer: C
9.How would a user be able to view a list of their metrics according to the goals of their business?
A. Sort and trend
B. Strategies
C. Watch list
D. Metric types
Answer: B
10.What can the user create to indicate that they have taken a corrective step to improve the performance
of a metric?
A. Project
B. Strategy
C. Action
D. Report
Answer: C
11.Which of the following items is stored in the content store?
A. Metric actions
B. Scorecard projects
PrepKing.com
C. Metric diagrams
D. Scorecard Cognos 8 reports
Answer: D
12.Which of the following items is stored in the metric store?
A. Metric studio user preferences
B. Published Metric Designer jobs
C. Metric package data source definition
D. Specifications for metric maintenance tasks
Answer: A
13.Which of the following items must be defined at the time of package creation?
A. Root scorecard
B. Business calendar levels
C. Scorecard methodology
D. Default tolerance percent
Answer: B
14.What must exist prior to creating a metrics package?
A. Scorecards
B. Business calendar
C. Database
D. Metric types
Answer: C
15.The HR department is required to monitor headcount, which is a metric type defined as ‘On Target is
Positive’. The target is 1000 and the range for on target is positive is 50%. The tolerance is 10%. What is
the range of values for the upper yellow band?
A. 1001-1050
B. 1051-1150
PrepKing.com
C. 1101-1150
D. 1101-1199
Answer: B
16.What must be created to get an accurate idea of customer satisfaction and how it rates against the
organization’s target and the competitors’ ratings?
A. Create a benchmark column for the competitor’s rating and create a customer satisfaction metric using
performance pattern of ‘Above target is positive’.
B. Create a stretch column for your customer satisfaction target and set the competitor’s rating using
performance pattern of ‘Below target is positive’.
C. Create a customer satisfaction metric using performance pattern of ‘Above target is positive’ and set the
target value as the competitor’s rating.
D. Create a customer satisfaction metric using performance pattern of ‘On target is positive’, where the
lower threshold is the customer’s rating and the upper threshold is your stretch target.
Answer: A
17.Given the following information, what is the score?
Metric type performance pattern: Below target is positive
Default Tolerance: 200
Score per tolerance: 1
Target: 4000
Actual: 4400
A. Score is 2
B. Score is 1
C. Score is -2
D. Score is -1
Answer: C
18.What does the threshold-based calculation method involve?
A. Setting the tolerance as an absolute value
PrepKing.com
B. Setting target boundaries with user defined values
C. Setting the width of green bands for ‘On target is positive’ metric types
D. Setting the tolerance value to indicate how much variance from target is acceptable
Answer: B
19.A metric’s actual value may be significantly different than its target value during a particular period.
Which of the following determines how much variance from the target is acceptable?
A. Calendar rollup value
B. Tolerance value
C. Planned finish value
D. Index value
Answer: B
20.There is a requirement to load metric values for a metric at the monthly level, but not have the quarterly
and yearly values calculated. How is the metric type business calendar rollup level set to accommodate the
loading of these values? A. Set as sum of individual values
B. Set as last of individual values
C. Set as supplied by client
D. Set as maximum of individual values
Answer: C
21.A finance scorecard contains all the financial key performance indicators. Executives want the
application to provide a status and a score for the overall Finance scorecard. How is this implemented?
A. Set the metric type business calendar rollup level as sum of individual values.
B. Create a group using the Majority Rules group status calculation on only the Finance scorecard.
C. Create a derived index metric on the Finance scorecard.
D. Create an impact diagram where the impacted metrics are all the metrics on the Finance scorecard.
Answer: C
22.The exhibit shows the monthly values for a specific metric and the rolled up quarterly values. Which
PrepKing.com
rollup rule is applied?
A. Sum of individual values
B. Average of individual values
C. Max of individual values
D. Last of individual values
Answer: B
23.What does a qualifier do?
A. Distinguishes between metrics to be used in a derived metric calculation.
B. Identifies metrics that belong to specific groups.
C. Identifies metrics of the same type across different scorecards.
D. Distinguishes between metrics of the same type on the same scorecard.
Answer: D
24.What is the importance of assigning an owner?
A. To apply permissions to a metric
PrepKing.com
B. To allow tracking of accountability on a metric
C. To assign actions to a metric
D. To allow tracking of accountability on an impact diagram
Answer: B
25.Which activity requires the creation of a data integration metric task?
A. Load data manually
B. Create a Cognos 8 report
C. Transfer data from staging area to metric store
D. Export data from a metric package
Answer: D
26.After executing SQL scripts to deliver values into the metric store, at a minimum, what metric
maintenance task must be run to populate the metric store? A. Import data from files into staging area
B. Import and transfer data from files into metric store
C. Transfer data from staging area into metric store
D. Recalculate metric store derived values
Answer: C
27.Which of the following maintenance tasks does NOT calculate scores and statuses?
A. Import data from files into staging area
B. Import and transfer data from files into metric store
C. Transfer data from staging area into metric store
D. Recalculate metric store derived values
Answer: A
28.When executing an extract in Metric Designer using the Write to files option, which metric maintenance
task MUST be run to make the data visible in Metric Studio?
A. Import data from files into staging area
B. Import and transfer data from files into metric store

Download COGNOS BI0-142 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 BI OLAP Developer

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-135
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI OLAP Developer
• Questions and Answers : 71 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-135 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-135 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-135 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-135 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-135 Sample Questions
1.Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A
2.If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
3.For performance reasons, what is the best parent-child ratio for categories in each level?
A. 1:10 or less
B. 1:11 or more
C. 5:1 or less
D. 3:1 or more
Answer: A
4.Transformer is unable to locate one of the source files for a data source in the model, and the model
update fails. Which type of files can be used to restart the processing at the point of failure?
A. .py?
B. .qy?
C. .mdl
D. .mdx
Answer: B
5.How can the cube build flexibility and performance be maximized?
A. Enable Consolidation.
B. Enable the AutoSummarize property.
PrepKing.com
C. Combine Structural and Transactional data into one data source.
D. Preprocess the data.
Answer: D
6.Where should fact queries against OLAP sources come from?
A. A flat file
B. An .iqd file
C. A Cognos 8 report
D. A Cognos 8 package
Answer: A
7.A Cognos 8 report with prompts is used as a data source. What must be done to create a second query
that is based on the same report but provides different values for mandatory prompts?
A. Add the second query to the report data source.
B. Refresh the source when adding the second query.
C. Add prompt values to the cache in the Transformer data source.
D. Add the same report as another Transformer report data source.
Answer: D
8.To add dimensional data to an existing model, how can metadata be leveraged from other published
OLAP packages?
A. Insert an OLAP package in the data source list.
B. Import a PowerCube as a data source.
C. Add dimensions from an OLAP package in the dimension map.
D. Add a data source query using a Cognos 8 OLAP report.
Answer: C
9.Which of the following can be done to improve performance when dealing with large volumes of data?
A. Include multiple data sources.
B. Use a single large data source.
PrepKing.com
C. Include data sources of the same type.
D. Use Cognos 8 reports as the data sources.
Answer: A
10.Which of the following will help improve processing time when Transformer queries the data?
A. Use Cognos 8 packages and reports as structural data sources.
B. Separate structural and transactional information in multiple data sources.
C. Combine structural and transactional information into one data source.
D. Define dimensions with one transactional data source.
Answer: B
11.What does unique mean when applied to a level in a dimension map?
A. The level is designated as a convergence level.
B. The level must be the bottom level of the dimension.
C. No two categories in the level can be derived from the same source value.
D. The data history does not move with the categories as they move in the level.
Answer: C
12.What should a developer do if some levels appear red after validating the model using Show Scope?
A. Ensure the level exists in the data source.
B. Specify a valid relationship between the level and the data source.
C. Re-attach the categories in the Dimension Diagram.
D. Apply unique move to the level and regenerate the categories.
Answer: B
13.What does a unique move ensure when applied to a level in a dimension map?
A. The measure values are not rolled up to the new path of the moved categories.
B. The category can be moved to another level.
C. The developer must manually restructure the categories in the dimension.
D. The category moved within the level has its data history moved with it.
PrepKing.com
Answer: D
14.How can a developer populate a level with a different data source column?
A. Through level properties.
B. Through column properties.
C. Through dimension properties.
D. Through PowerCube properties.
Answer: A
15.What can be done if a regular time dimension is added to a model, and the levels Year, Quarter, and
Month are not automatically generated?
A. Set the date input format for the time dimension.
B. Set the data class of the source category to Date.
C. Change the numeric time sequence for each level.
D. Create a non-standard time dimension with the new levels.
Answer: B
16.A developer added a manual level in the time dimension. During category generation, the developer gets
a warning that Transformer is not able to relate the categories to the parent levels. What must be done to
ensure Transformer relates the categories correctly?
A. Specify a date function for each level.
B. Specify date input format.
C. Specify an Invalid Dates category.
D. Specify a time-state rollup.
Answer: A
17.How can a developer customize the reporting period so that the year has 52 weeks, with 7 days in each
week, yielding 364 days?
A. Set up a lunar time period.
B. Set up a time period based on a calendar year.
PrepKing.com
C. Set up a time period based on fiscal year.
D. Set up a relative time category.
Answer: A
18.What can be done to correct a report that contains time categories that are out of range and irrelevant to
the user?
A. Ensure the input format is correct for dates in the source data.
B. Check to see if an absolute range category is automatically generated.
C. Adjust the acceptable dates included in the model.
D. Create a non-standard time dimension.
Answer: C
19.When the model contains two data sources that provide date values, how can the developer avoid
ambiguity when Transformer sets the current time period?
A. Disable the data source’s ability to set the current time period.
B. Assign the current date (obtained from the system clock) as the current period.
C. Let Transformer assign the date closest to the model’s creation date as the current period.
D. Enter the initial current period and adjust it to match the system date and time.
Answer: A
20.If a cube group based on a level in a dimension is created, how can the developer prevent another cube
from being added to the cube group?
A. Ensure the level labels and category labels remain unchanged.
B. Specify a category limit for the level.
C. Prevent the automatic creation of categories.
D. Exclude the dimension from auto-partitioning.
Answer: C
21.Where can a developer change category relationships to create a structure different from what the data
suggests?
PrepKing.com
A. Category Diagram
B. Dimension Map
C. Data source property sheet
D. Level property sheet
Answer: A
22.How can the parent-child relationship for each category be established?
A. Verify the model.
B. Insert manual levels.
C. Show category counts.
D. Generate the categories.
Answer: D
23.What must be done to make the cube data available in Analysis Studio?
A. Rebuild the PowerCube.
B. Create a data source connection to the cube in Transformer.
C. Publish the PowerCube as a data source and a package.
D. Generate a package that contains a data source connection to the cube.
Answer: C
24.Senior Managers need to see total and regional sales figures, but Regional Managers should see
relevant figures for only their regions. Where can the developer specify the degree of detail to be included?
A. In a manual level
B. In a cube group
C. In the PowerCube
D. In a scenario dimension
Answer: B
25.How can a developer include a key performance indicator that is unavailable in the Transformer data
source?
PrepKing.com
A. Add a regular measure.
B. Add a calculated measure.
C. Add a measure folder.
D. Add a measure allocation.
Answer: B
26.How can a developer best address values that are being rounded excessively?
A. Adjust the number of decimal places.
B. Create a calculated measure.
C. Modify the rollup operations.
D. Assign scale and precision settings.
Answer: D
27.The model contains a measure named Quantity, and the OLAP reports need to show the Minimum
monthly quantity sold to each store. How would a developer get the correct result?
A. Use a Regular rollup function.
B. Use a Time state rollup function.
C. Use an External rollup function.
D. Use a Non-regular rollup function.
Answer: A
28.The developer notices a decrease in run-time performance in a model that has calculated measures
(before rollup). Because auto-partitioning is not used, how can the developer increase performance?
A. Use a duplicates rollup instead of a before rollup setting.
B. Use an external rollup instead of a before rollup setting.
C. Use calculated columns instead of before rollup measures.
D. Use a time state rollup instead of before rollup setting.
Answer: C
29.For a cube that repesents values in Euros, what should be done for American consumers to see the
PrepKing.com
appropriate currency symbol in Euros?
A. Build Cubes using a system locale that matches the measure locale.
B. Manually create and update the base currency information.
C. Set up currency conversion without defining a default currency.
D. Use more than one data source to supply the conversion rates.
Answer: A
30.When measures are calculated after rollup, when are the calculations performed?
A. Before time state rollup takes place.
B. After allocated measures are calculated.
C. Before regular rollup takes place on all measures.
D. After relative time calculations.
Answer: B
31.What can be done to show how many retailers of each type bought a specific product each month,
quarter, or year?
A. Create a calculated measure with a Time state rollup.
B. Specify an allocated measure as the Activity Measure.
C. Create a calculated column.
D. Define a measure that counts categories.
Answer: D
32.What objects can be created within the Cognos Namespace?
A. Roles and users
B. Groups and roles
C. Groups and users
D. Members
Answer: B
33.To control access to content for users that have similar responsibilities and privileges,where should

Download COGNOS BI0-135 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-125
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer
• Questions and Answers : 86 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-125 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-125 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-125 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-125 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-125 Sample Questions
1.Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer:A
2.If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer:A
3.What can Data Manager be used for?
A. To create a Cognos 8 content store.
B. To extract operational data from multiple sources.
C. To create dashboards in Report Studio.
D. To build a Cognos Planning application.
Answer:B
4.What kind of tool is Data Manager?
A. ASP
B. DBMS
C. ETL
D. ERP
Answer:C
5.What distinguishes an OLTP system from a data warehouse?
A. An OLTP system captures and processes original business transactions, while a data warehouse does
not.
B. A data warehouse captures and processes original business transactions, while an OLTP system does
PrepKing.com
not.
C. An OLTP system is used to transform, clean, and combine operational data, while a data warehouse is
not.
D. A data warehouse is fully normalized, while an OLTP system is fully denormalized.
Answer:A
6.Which object is required to create a Data Manager catalog?
A. Cognos 8 package
B. Fact build
C. JobStream
D. Database
Answer:D
7.A developer wants to create a connection to a database in a Data Manager catalog. When creating this
connection, which of the following must the developer specify?
A. A default schema name.
B. Connection method that must be used to connect to the database.
C. Names, locations, and port numbers for the SOAP and socket servers.
D. User ID and pasword for the Cognos 8 content store database.
Answer:B
8.A developer wants to create a connection to a published Framework Manager package in a Data
Manager catalog. Before this connection can be created successfully, what must the developer do?
A. Add an LDAP or NTLM namespace in Cognos Configuration.
B. Configure Data Manager to access the Cognos 8 Gateway and Dispatcher URLs.
C. Log on to Cognos Connection as a user in the Data Manager Authors role.
D. Create a data source connection to the Cognos 8 data store.
Answer:B
9.A DataStream includes two different data sources: “Golf Equipment” and “Other Equipment.” For each
PrepKing.com
incoming row, the developer wants to add a value that indicates the data source that the row comes from.
What should the developer do?
A. Create a static member for each data source in the underlying hierarchy.
B. Add a literal to each data source that references the data source name.
C. Specify the source identity property for each data source in the DataStream.
D. Add a derivation to the transformation model to create a new column.
Answer:B
10.A developer has added a data source connection to a Data Manager catalog. This connection points to a
relational database. The developer wants to view the contents of this database, such as the number of
tables that it contains. What tool could the administrator use?
A. SQLTerm
B. SQLTXT Designer
C. ODBC Administrator
D. Reference Explorer
Answer:A
11.Which of the following can a developer do with SQLTXT Designer?
A. Select data from multiple tables using joins.
B. Select data from multiple text files using joins.
C. Specify row and column delimiters.
D. Specify sort order for the flat file.
Answer:C
12.A text file contains a row at the top that only identifies the names of the columns. In order for this file to
be processed successfully, what must the developer do in SQLTXT Designer?
A. Specify CR as the record delimiter.
B. Specify NL as the record delimiter.
C. Specify that the header row ignore limit is one.
D. Specify that the file contains one header line.
PrepKing.com
Answer:D
13.A developer wants to move a selection of components from a development environment to a production
environment. What should the developer do?
A. Create a catalog backup file (.ctg).
B. Create a backup of the catalog database.
C. Create a package file (.pkg) that contains the components.
D. Create a SQL script to transfer the components.
Answer:C
14.Which of the following is true of packages in Data Manager?
A. User-defined folders cannot be exported.
B. During importing, duplicate components are automatically renamed.
C. User-defined folders cannot be imported.
D. During importing, dependent components are automatically selected.
Answer:D
15.Which of the following is true of the Navigator?
A. When searching for components, wildcards are not supported.
B. When a component is selected, dependent components are shown.
C. Library components (such as hierarchies) cannot be navigated.
D. Components from different catalogs can be compared.
Answer:B
16.End users must be able to create Cognos 8 reports using data from the data warehouse. To facilitate this,
what can the developer do from within Data Manager?
A. Run the Create Framework Manager Model wizard to create a project.
B. Create a Cognos 8 package in the Library area of the catalog.
C. Export the Data Manager metadata to XML for use in Framework Manager.
D. Publish a Cognos 8 package in the Metadata area of the catalog.
PrepKing.com
Answer:C
17.A developer has geographical data from a data source where cities roll up into states, and states roll up
into regions. What should the developer create in order to allow Data Manager to aggregate fact data to the
region level?
A. Derived dimension
B. Lookup
C. Static members
D. Hierarchy
Answer:D
18.A developer wants to ensure that each incoming row of fact data has a corresponding location code from
a dimension table. What should the developer create?
A. Lookup
B. Dimensional determinant
C. Member determinant
D. Identifier
Answer:A
19.A developer has created a hierarchy that uses multiple data sources. The developer wants to know if
there are multiple parents or children without parents. What tool should the administrator use?
A. Hierarchy wizard
B. SQLTXT Designer
C. SQLTerm
D. Reference Explorer
Answer:D
20.What can be seen with Reference Explorer that cannot be seen when using SQLTerm to examine the
data?
A. Hierarchical data from two database connections.
PrepKing.com
B. Number of rows in the data source used to build the hierarchy.
C. Number of tables in the data source used to build the hierarchy.
D. Columns from which the member data was obtained.
Answer:A
21.Without modifying any of the settings, what is the lowest level of granularity that will be shown in the
Reference Explorer?
A. AllStaff
B. Staff
C. Staff (H)
D. SalesStaff
Answer:B
22.A developer has created a date hierarchy using the Date Hierarchy wizard. Which of the following is true
of all the members in this hierarchy?
A. All are retrieved from a database table using SQL.
B. All are static and are physically stored in the catalog.
C. All are retrieved from a flat file using SQL.
D. All are dynamic and are physically stored in the catalog.
Answer:B
PrepKing.com
23.A developer wants to deliver data to a dimension table in a data mart. The dimensional framework has
already been built. What should the developer create?
A. Dimension build
B. Reference dimension
C. Metadata dimension
D. Metadata collection
Answer:A
24.Which of the following is a use for a fact build?
A. To deliver fact data into a dimensional framework.
B. To acquire and transform transactional data.
C. To automate tasks related to the build process.
D. To deliver fact data into a metadata star.
Answer:B
25.Which of the following is true of a dimension build?
A. It uses literals to define the behavior of each column of a dimension table.
B. It can generate PowerCubes, Framework Manager models, and Cognos 8 reports.
C. It can deliver data to a single, “private” data mart.
D. It uses a template to define the behavior of each column of a dimension table.
Answer:D
26.Which of the following tasks can be completed with the Dimension Build wizard?
A. Adding a custom schema to use for the dimension tables.
B. Specifying the folder in which the dimension build will be stored.
C. Specifying surrogates and change tracking behaviors.
D. Creating a connection to hold the dimension tables.
Answer:C
PrepKing.com
27.In the Dimension Build wizard, the developer has specified the schema type as “Star schema.” What will
be the result of this selection?
A. The dimension will be represented in a single table. Each level of the delivered hierarchy will be
represented by one or more columns of this table.
B. The dimension will be represented in a table that contains only the keys of all the levels of the delivered
hierarchy. The descriptions of the higher levels will reside in other tables.
C. The dimension will be represented by one table for each hierarchy level. Each table will have a foreign
key to the level above.
D. The dimension will be represented in a single table. Each row of this table will contain the ID of the
member, together with the ID of its parent.
Answer:A
28.What is a difference between a measure element and an attribute element?
A. Attribute values can be aggregated by Data Manager, while measure values cannot.
B. Measure values can be merged by Data Manager, while attribute values cannot.
C. Attribute values can be merged by Data Manager, while measure values cannot.
D. Measure values can be aggregated by Data Manager, while attribute values cannot.
Answer:D
29.A developer wants to copy data from one table to a table in another database. What type of fact build
would be the most appropriate for the developer to specify in the Fact Build wizard?
A. Cognos BI Mart (Snowflake)
B. Data transfer
C. Cognos BI Mart (Star)
D. Relational datamart
Answer:B
30.What is depicted below?

Download COGNOS BI0-125 Dumps

Cognos 8 BI Author v2

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-112
• Exam Name : Cognos 8 BI Author v2
• Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-112 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-112 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-112 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-112 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-112 Sample Questions

Exam : COGNOS BI0-112
Title : Cognos 8 BI Author v2

1. In Report Studio, what is true about a crosstab node?
A. It contains at least one nested crosstab node.
B. It contains at least one crosstab node member.
C. It contains more than one nested crosstab node.
D. It must contain more than one crosstab node member.
Answer: B
2. The sales department requires a report that numerically compares the gross profit generated for all
product lines in each territory. In Report Studio, which is the most appropriate report type?
A. List
B. Chart
C. Crosstab
D. Repeater
Answer: C
3. An author wants to apply formatting to a list report. In Report Studio, the author clicks a column in the
list, clicks Select Ancestor, and then clicks List Columns. In this situation, which of the following is true?
A. Formatting all columns will also format aggregate rows in the list.
B. Formatting all columns overrides formatting for an existing formatted column in the list.
C. Formatting all columns affects all subsequent objects added to the report page.
D. Formatting all columns ensures any new columns added to the list will have the same formatting.
Answer: D
4. In Report Studio, what is a baseline?
A. A value in a list report that other values are compared against.
B. A border in a crosstab that separates measures from aggregate totals.
C. A constant value drawn on a chart to indicate major divisions in the data.
PrepKing.com
D. A break point that lets you keep part of a report stationary while you scroll.
Answer: C
5. In Report Studio, which chart lets the report author plot a third measure?
A. Area
B. Bubble
C. Scatter
D. Progressive Column
Answer: B
6. In Report Studio, an author wants to change the location of the legend in the chart report. What
property will accomplish this?
A. Auto Truncation
B. Axis Assignment
C. Absolute Position
D. Relative Alignment
Answer: C
7. In Report Studio, an author is using a relationally modeled package and wants to filter a report to only
include three specific products. If the author is not sure how to spell the product names, what is the fastest
way to add the product names to the filter expression?
A. Run the report with all product names and copy the product names.
B. Use the Select Multiple Values feature to search for the product names.
C. Add the product names from the Source tab in the Available components pane.
D. Add the product names from the Data Items tab in the Available components pane.
Answer: B
8. In Report Studio, why would an author create Static Choices for a prompt?
A. To provide prompt options that are not found in the data source.
PrepKing.com
B. So that the prompt appears with an option selected by default.
C. To provide default values to satisfy a parameter so a prompt page will not appear.
D. So that the items that appear in the prompt depend on items selected in another prompt.
Answer: A
9. In Report Studio, if an author adds a prompt to a report page containing a list, how can the author
prevent an automatically generated prompt from appearing when the report runs?
A. Add a Static Choice
B. Specify a Default Selection
C. Set the Auto-Submit property to Yes
D. Change the Required property to No
Answer: B
10. In Report Studio, when should authors use a Generated Prompt?
A. They only want the user to be able to choose one option.
B. They are unsure of the most appropriate prompt type to choose.
C. They want to use the same prompt on a prompt page and a report page.
D. They want the options to be based on selections made in another prompt.
Answer: B
11. In Report Studio, for which task would an author create a query calculation?
A. Add report run-time information to a report.
B. Apply conditional formatting to data in a report.
C. Let users choose which filter to apply to a report.
D. Derive additional information from the data source.
Answer: D
12. In a Report Studio report, to add white space around text within a block, which of the following
properties must be set?
A. Positioning
B. Size & Overflow
C. Padding
D. Margin
Answer: C
13. In Report Studio, a report contains several blocks and tables. To determine if there is sufficient space
between objects, what will show how the report looks when it is generated?
A. View a Print Preview.
B. Hide the boundary lines.
C. Unlock the report objects.
D. Open the Page Structure view.
Answer: B
14. In Report Studio, when creating a list report, what is the difference between creating a section and
creating a header?
A. headers appear outside the list
B. sections appear outside the list
C. headers appear once at the top of the list
D. sections appear once at the top of the list
Answer: B
15. In Report Studio, why would an author use the Page Structure view?
A. To move objects in a report.
B. To change the underlying query.
C. To add a new page to the report.
D. To drive page layout using a query.
Answer: A
16. In Report Studio, when would the author need to unlock cells on a report?
A. To merge two report types into a single report.
B. To merge query items into a single column.
C. To create a master-detail report.
D. To convert a crosstab to a list.
Answer: B
17. In Report Studio, where can an author modify a global class to apply a change to all objects that use
PrepKing.com
that class?
A. Page Explorer
B. Query Explorer
C. Conditional Explorer
D. Page Structure view
Answer: A
18. In Report Studio, an author creates a weekly sales report and modifies the global class settings in the
report. Which reports will this modification affect?
A. All reports.
B. Reports created using the same package.
C. Reports created within the log on session.
D. Only the current report.
Answer: D
19. In Report Studio, a block object contains a text item in the page header. If the author reuses the block in
the page footer, which of the following is true?
A. The author can replace the child object with an object of a different type.
B. The author must replace the child object with an object of the same type.
C. The author can replace the parent object with an object of the same type.
D. The author must replace the child object with an object of a different type.
Answer: A
20. In Report Studio, a query contains the data item Product Line, which is grouped. Which of the following
will add a page break for each Product Line?
A. Create a section on Product Line.
B. Add a new page for each Product Line.
C. Set the rows per page property to Product Line.
D. Create a page set that is associated with the query.
Answer: D
21. In Report Studio, which report outputs can produce a bookmark?
A. CSV and PDF
B. CSV and Excel
C. HTML and PDF
D. Excel and HTML
Answer: C
22. In Report Studio, what can an author do to organize list data into logical sections?
A. Insert a table.
PrepKing.com
B. Add a header or footer.
C. Pivot the list to a crosstab.
D. Modify the Spacing & Breaking property.
Answer: B
23. In Report Studio, what must an author create to let users view a report as either a list, a crosstab, or a
chart?
A. A string variable
B. A Boolean variable
C. A query calculation
D. A layout calculation
Answer: A
24. In Report Studio, an author wants the report title to appear in the language in which the report is run.
What property of the report header must the author define to create this variable?
A. Style Variable
B. String Variable
C. Render Variable
D. Text Source Variable
Answer: D
25. In Report Studio, which variable requires the author to create values?
A. Style
B. String
C. Boolean
PrepKing.com
D. Language
Answer: B
26. An author wants to create a report that displays certain list columns depending on the user’s prompt
selection. What property of the list column must the author define to create this variable?
A. Text source variable
B. String variable
C. Style variable
D. Render variable
Answer: D
27. An author creates a report in Report Studio. The report contains a parameter for the Product line query
item. The author wants to let users drill through to this report from a variety of reports created using the GO
Data Warehouse (query) package.
To ensure that this target report contains data for the appropriate products, the author wants to limit the
report cells that users can drill through from in source reports. What must the author do when creating the
drill-through definition?
A. Set the Product line query item as the target of the drill-through definition.
B. Set the Product line query item as the scope of the drill-through definition.
C. Add a parameter for the Product line query to the drill-through definition.
D. Delete all data items except for the Product line query item from the drill-through definition.
Answer: B
28. In Report Studio, an author creates a report using Package A. Users should be able to drill through to
target reports created for this package. What must the author do?
A. Enable package drill-through behavior for the report.
B. Add this report as a source report for each target created for the package.
C. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package as targets for the source report.
D. Add all drill-through definitions created for the package to the scope of the report.
Answer: A

Download COGNOS BI0-112 Dumps

Cognos 8 BI Administrator v2

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-122
• Exam Name : Cognos 8 BI Administrator v2
• Questions and Answers : 45 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-122 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-122 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-122 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-122 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-122 Sample Questions

Exam : COGNOS BI0-122
Title : Cognos 8 BI Administrator v2

1. What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database credentials
when they run reports?
A. Signon
B. Single signon
C. Collation sequence
D. Connection sequence
Answer: A
2. From within Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire Cognos 8
application into a new and empty environment?
A. Content store
B. Public Folders
C. Cognos namespace
D. Content manager
Answer: A
3. When an administrator exports entries from Cognos 8, what file gets created?
A. Content store file
B. Object extract file
C. Deployment archive file
D. Configuration export file
Answer: C
4. The Report Upgrade task in Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report specifications.
Which of the following is one option?
A. By folder
B. By role
C. By group
D. By namespace
Answer: A
5. An administrator wants to show the folder hierarchy of Cognos Connection in a portlet. Which portlet
must the administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
Answer: C
6. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
PrepKing.com
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Answer: C
7. An administrator creates a shortcut that points to an invoice report. What happens if the invoice report is
renamed?
A. The shortcut contains the original name and can be used to view the latest output before the report was
renamed.
B. The shortcut contains the original name and no longer works because the link to the report is broken.
C. Cognos Connection automatically updates the report name in the shortcut, and the shortcut remains fully
functional.
D. Cognos Connection automatically deletes the shortcut.
Answer: B
8. A user must be able to only view the contents of the Americas Inventory folder. What permissions must
be granted to the user for the folder?
A. Write
B. Execute
C. Traverse
D. Set policy
Answer: C
9. Before sending a report by email, where must the administrator specify the mail server account?
A. Cognos Connection
B. Cognos Administration
C. Framework Manager
D. Cognos Configuration
Answer: D
10. An administrator wants to email a report to a recipient; however, this recipient is not part of the Cognos
security system. What can the administrator create in Cognos Administration?
A. Role
B. User
C. Signon
D. Contact
Answer: D
11. In Cognos Connection, how can an administrator specify different prompt values and run options for a
PrepKing.com
report without modifying the report itself?
A. Schedule a report.
B. Create a report view.
C. Produce a report output.
D. Burst a report.
Answer: B
12. When an administrator sets up package-based drill-through, what does the scope represent?
A. The format of the drill-through target report.
B. The source report or analysis for the drill-through.
C. The target report in the drill definition that is shown to the user.
D. The Run options for the target report.
Answer: C
13. Which statement describes Cognos 8 BI architecture?
A. Communication between components is SOAP on HTTP Protocol.
B. The BIBus is the communication tier of the Cognos 8 BI architecture.
C. The two-tiered architecture is component based and typically separated by firewalls.
D. The content manager consists of a set of protocols governing communication among Cognos BI
services.
Answer: A
14. Which is a function of the first tier in the Cognos 8 BI architecture?
A. Authenticate users to the correct namespace.
B. Pass requests to a Cognos 8 BI dispatcher for processing.
C. Render the Cognos Connection and Metric Studio interfaces.
D. Start Cognos 8 BI services configured and enabled on a computer.
Answer: B
15. Which service is responsible for generating an HTML page?
A. Job service
B. Report service
C. Delivery service
D. Content Manager service
Answer: B
16. What is true about servlets and services?
A. The servlet container manages the threads for each user request.
B. If a service fails, users get email notification.
C. Report service and batch report service run within the servlet container.
PrepKing.com
D. The dispatcher creates the threads that are then passed to the report service for processing.
Answer: A
17. What is one of the purposes of Tomcat in the Cognos 8 BI environment?
A. Acts as a servlet container for the report and batch report services.
B. Monitors the dispatcher and all user requests are lost upon failure.
C. Monitors the Cognos 8 service and restarts the service upon failure.
D. Acts as a servlet container for Cognos 8 presentation services.
Answer: D
18. Which statement is true about the definition of the Application tier?
A. The Application tier hosts the dispatcher and content manager that reside in a servlet container.
B. The Application tier hosts the dispatcher, which includes the Cognos Application Firewall and Access
Manager.
C. The Application tier hosts the BI server and the content store.
D. The Application tier hosts the content manager, which contains data such as a report specification,
Cognos namespace, and so on.
Answer: A
19. When installing and configuring a standby Content Manager, what must the administrator do to ensure
failover?
A. Configure the content store to know the location of all standby Content Managers.
B. Install the first standby Content Manager on the machine with the highest processor speed.
C. Ensure that services are started on the machines hosting the standby Content Managers before they are
started on the machine hosting the default active Content Manager.
D. Configure authentication providers the same way on all machines hosting Content Managers.
Answer: D
20. When the user is accessing a report on a remote computer, what configuration must be made to avoid a
Cognos Application Firewall error?
A. Anonymous Access must be set to false.
B. The third-party VSS checking must be enabled.
C. The Cognos Application Firewall must be enabled on an internal dispatcher.
D. The name of the remote computer must be added to the list of valid domain or hosts.
Answer: D
21. Below is a partial diagram of the processing that occurs when a user launches saved output in Cognos
Connection and views it in Cognos Viewer. At the level of the dispatcher, which of the Cognos 8 services is
used to process the request?
A. Report service
PrepKing.com
B. Presentation service
C. Batch report service
D. Delivery service
Answer: B
22. Which of the following is true regarding the Cognos 8 gateway?
A. The gateway can be configured to send requests directly to the Content Manager.
B. For failover, the gateway can be configured to know the location of multiple dispatchers.
C. When more than one dispatcher is available, the gateway can automatically balance the load of requests
by sending them to any dispatcher.
D. If the gateway is installed on a machine that is separate from where other Cognos 8 components are
installed, the services for the gateway must be started first.
Answer: B
23. Machine 1 is set up as a gateway.
Machine 2 is set up as an application server.
Machine 3 is set up as an application server and a failover content manager.
Machine 4 is set up as the default content manager.
Where does the administrator need to disable anonymous access?
A. Machines 1, 2, and 3 only
B. Machines 3 and 4 only
C. Machines 2 and 3 only
D. Machine 4 only
Answer: B
24. When configuring for a distributed installation, why must the administrator configure and start services
for the content manager computer first?
A. To ensure the external dispatcher URI is specified before the dispatcher is configured and services
started.
B. To ensure that the certificate authority service is available to issue certificates to other computers in the
distributed installation.
C. To ensure that the BI server can connect to the underlying reporting data sources.
D. To ensure the internal dispatcher URI on the content manger computer is specified before the dispatcher
is configured and serviced started.
Answer: B
25. Which is a valid option for load balancing requests across report servers?
A. Configure dedicated web servers.
B. Rely on automatic load balancing weighted round robin.
PrepKing.com
C. Configure dispatchers together with the gateway.
D. Configure load balancing to cluster compatible.
Answer: B
26. How must the gateway component be configured when there are multiple report servers in a distributed
installation to ensure failover?
A. The gateway must be configured to know the location of the content store.
B. The gateway must be configured to know the location of a single dispatcher.
C. The gateway must be configured to know the location of multiple dispatchers.
D. The gateway must be configured to know the location of the content manager.
Answer: C
27. The following values are set for the Interactive report service:
Number of high affinity connections = 1
Number of low affinity connections = 2
Maximum number of processes = 4
What are the total connections available for high affinity requests?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
28. What is a recommendation for tuning during high interaction request processing?
A. Set the number of jobs lower during peak hours.
B. Set the number of jobs higher during peak hours.
C. Increase the processing capacity on the dispatcher.
D. Increase the peak period hours.
Answer: A
29. There are 2 load balanced report servers.
The dispatcher on Computer X has the following characteristics:
RAM:1024 MB
CPU: Dual P4 1.5 Ghz
Hard drive: 80 GB
The dispatcher on Computer Y has the following characteristics:
RAM:2048 MB
CPU: Dual P4 3.8 Ghz
Hard drive: 80 GB
PrepKing.com
The processing capacity for Computer X is set to 1. What would an administrator set the processing
capacity on Computer Y to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B
30. Which type of logging indication can show user calls that are made from Cognos 8 components?
A. Audit logging
B. Trace logging
C. Event logging
D. Performance logging
Answer: A
31. At what level should the logging be set to capture the following set of details?
user account management and runtime usage of Cognos 8,
use requests, and
service requests and responses.
A. Trace
B. Basic
C. Request
D. Minimal
Answer: C
32. When monitoring the status of services in Cognos Administration, which services are listed?
A. Only services that are running and stopped
B. Only services that are running
C. Only services that are enabled in Cognos Connection
D. Only services that are enabled in Cognos Configuration
Answer: D
33. When the default active Content Manager fails, which of the following occurs?
A. The system automatically switches to a standby Content Manager, and at some point the administrator
must make it the default active Content Manager.
B. The system automatically activates all standby Content Managers and spreads the load of requests
across them all.
C. The system automatically switches to a standby Content Manager, and requests are directed to it.
D. Users are prompted to rerun requests on the standby Content Manager of their choice.
PrepKing.com
Answer: C
34. Which system metric for the Report Service would the administrator set as having a performance
pattern of “Low values are good”?
A. Queue length high watermark
B. Percentage of successful requests
C. Number of successful requests
D. Successful requests per minute
Answer: A
35. Below is a partial diagram of the processing that occurs when a user submits a request for
authentication through the log on page in their browser. Which of the following components represents X?
A. Content store
B. Cognos Access Manager
C. Query database
D. Authentication provider database
Answer: B
36. When a namespace is no longer used for authentication, what must the administrator do to permanently
remove it from the content store?
A. Delete the namespace in Cognos Administration, and then delete it in Cognos Configuration.
B. Delete the namespace in Cognos Configuration only.
C. Delete the namespace in Cognos Configuration, and then delete it in Cognos Administration.
D. Delete the namespace in Cognos Administration only.
Answer: C
37. What permission is needed to view and change the permissions of a Cognos 8 object?
A. Read
B. Set Policy
C. Traverse
D. Execute
Answer: B
38. A user wants to be able to view the contents of a container entry, such as a package or a folder, and
view general properties of the container itself without having full access to the content. Which permission
does the administrator assign to the user?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Traverse
D. Set Policy

Download COGNOS BI0-122 Dumps

IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional

• Exam Number/Code : BI0-210
• Exam Name : IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional
• Questions and Answers : 68 Q&As

Download Pass4sure BI0-210 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe BI0-210 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking BI0-210 Dumps from the link below

Download COGNOS BI0-210 Dumps

PrepKing.com COGNOS BI0-210 Sample Questions
1. Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A
2. If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
3. Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to BI
Application development?
A. Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B. New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C. The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D. Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer: D
4. Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?
A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.
B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.
C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.
D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.
Answer: B
5. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and
Cognos SIM?
A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.
B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos
SIM.
C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks,
documents, and techniques to guide development.
D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative
Approach for development of BI applications.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following statements is true about the Waterfall Approach?
A. The five steps in the process are considered valid for BI software development projects.
PrepKing.com
B. Each step is performed in sequence but you return to previous steps at specific points in the
development cycle.
C. It is designed so that requirements that are not discovered in the Analysis step will cascade out during
the design phase.
D. Project management tools no longer encourage the Waterfall Approach.
Answer: A
7. Which of the following statements best describes the Iterative Approach of application development?
A. A prototype solution is developed after the initial user interviews. This prototype is then used as a basis
for refining specific design requirements.
B. The design step is repeated multiple times before proceeding to the development step. Each pass
through the design step further refines the eventual solution.
C. The solution is developed and delivered to the users. After approximately 2 weeks, the users are
interviewed for any missing requirements and any new requirements form the basis for the next iteration.
D. A prototype is created that addresses 80 to 90% of the business requirements. This is demonstrated to
the users and their feedback is used to refine the prototype in subsequent iterations.
Answer: D
8. Which of the following issues is Iterative Development specifically designed to address?
A. The very act of developing a system or solution will change the business requirements.
B. Users understand their business processes but they don’t usually understand application development.
C. No developed solution will satisfy all users equally.
D. Users often feel that IT does not understand the business.
Answer: A
9. When examining an operational (transactional) database, which of the following is considered a good
indicator as to which tables contain fact data?
A. Tables with the fewest number of columns
B. Tables with the greatest number of rows
C. Tables with the greatest number of foreign keys
D. Tables with the fewest number of foreign keys
Answer: B
10. Which of the following is true regarding hierarchies and dimensions? A. Hierarchies help users
understand the data through rollup levels within dimensions.
B. All dimensions must have hierarchies.
C. All hierarchies are defined by the inherent nature of their dimensional data.
D. It is considered poor design to split a hierarchy across multiple dimensions.
Answer: A
PrepKing.com
11. When comparing two differently grained facts directly against one another, the developer must:
A. either write a union query or two reports that roll both facts up to a common level
B. either roll up the lower grained fact to the higher level or allocate the higher grained fact to the lower level
C. declare determinants at multiple levels in the dimensions of a DMR Framework Manager model
D. ensure that all conformed dimensions shared by the facts have the same number of levels
Answer: B
12. Which of the following is a key difference between MDX and SQL?
A. MDX is used for dimensional style reporting while SQL is incapable of dimensional style reporting.
B. MDX has built in functions to support relative date calculations while SQL cannot perform relative date
calculations.
C. Dimensionally Modeled Relational (DMR) retrieves data using MDX, not SQL.
D. MDX can reference metadata that SQL cannot.
Answer: D
13. Which of the following describes Key Performance Indicators (KPI)?
A. Specific metrics, usually derived, by which a company measures its progress and success.
B. Strategic goals, typically specified by executives, which describe the direction and objectives of the
organization.
C. Industry standards by which organizations measure themselves against others in their market space.
D. Core, atomic level data items that provide input into higher level derived items which then appear on
scorecards.
Answer: A
14. Which of the following describes the models contained in the ’24 Ways’ book referenced in the BI
Professional Workshop course?
A. Framework Manager models that map over an example normalized database, which one might find in a
manufacturing enterprise.
B. Physical, star schema data models for constructing data marts for the various departments in a generic
business enterprise.
C. Logical models that contain dimensions and key tactical metrics for the various departments in a generic
business enterprise.
D. Cognos 8 OLAP Modeler (Transformer) models that describe how to map data from a manufacturing
database into a PowerCube.
Answer: C
15. How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) tracked?
A. By aligning them to strategic and tactical goals and the business objectives of the enterprise.
B. By comparing them against other KPIs in a balanced scorecard.
PrepKing.com
C. By examining anomalies that appear in BI reporting and analysis.
D. By comparing their values to acceptable minimum and maximum levels of performance against a target.
Answer: D
16. In the Key Performance Indicator (KPI) process flow diagram shown below, which Cognos 8
components are normally associated with the ‘Source Information’ step?
A. Enterprise Planning and Data Manager
B. Enterprise Planning and Report Studio
C. Analysis Studio and Metric Studio
D. Analysis Studio and Data Manager
Answer: A
17. Which of the following is a critical component in delivering Corporate Performance Management
throughout an enterprise?
A. Drill down from summary to detailed information within individual subject areas.
B. Drill across from one subject area to another through conformed dimensions.
C. Star schema data marts designed to facilitate analysis and reporting.
D. Event management designed to monitor the status of Key Performance Indicators.
Answer: B
18. Which of the following statements describes the critical differences between a managed report and a
query?
A. A managed report is intended to be run on a regular execution schedule from a background batch
process whereas a query is run interactively.
B. A managed report is authored by trained developers whereas a query is authored by either trained
developers or end users.
PrepKing.com
C. A managed report is intended to be run on a regular execution schedule whereas a query is intended to
be authored and run on-demand.
D. A managed report prompts users for run-time parameters whereas a query does not.
Answer: C
19. When considering the differences between Analysis, Reporting, and Querying, which of the following is
NOT a user who needs Analysis?
A. A user who takes answers from one question as a starting point for other questions
B. A user who needs to understand multiple factors influencing performance
C. A user who needs to identify and understand trends from multiple perspectives
D. A user who views detailed data, which is optionally totaled and subtotaled
Answer: D
20. Which of the following allows greatest flexibility in formatting but generally has the lowest interactivity
with the users?
A. Analysis
B. Query
C. Dashboards
D. Managed Reports
Answer: D
21. Which of the following is NOT a critical feature or function of a scorecard?
A. Targets
B. Projections
C. Tolerances
D. Histories
Answer: B
22. A company wishes to coordinate the anticipated hiring activities of all of the departments in a given
division of the organization. The CEO has mandated a limit of 50 total new hires for the coming fiscal year.
The various departments must coordinate future hiring. The CEO would also like to see reports comparing
the projected hiring vs. the actual number of new hires by department.
Which set of Cognos 8 components BEST supports the company’s needs?
A. Planning and Report Studio
B. Report Studio and Analysis Studio
C. Event Studio and Report Studio
D. Planning and Data Manager
Answer: A
23. A company has several operational data stores. They wish to compare data from the various data stores
PrepKing.com
against one another. The data in the various stores must be manipulated to match. Eventual report
performance is more important than development time.
Which of the following Cognos 8 components would BEST address their requirements?
A. Report Studio and Query Studio
B. Analysis Studio and Report Studio
C. Data Manager and Analysis Studio
D. Planning, Data Manager, and Report Studio
Answer: C
24. A company records when customers check into a service center. If there are too many customers
waiting for the number of service representatives on hand, a manager wishes to be notified by an e-mail
that contains a report showing the current condition.
Which of the following Cognos 8 Components would BEST address their needs?
A. Office Connection and Report Studio
B. Data Manager, Event Management, and Office Connection
C. Office Connection and Query Studio
D. Event Management and Report Studio
Answer: D
25. A company has a manufacturing database they wish to interrogate. They know there are issues that
have affected production quality over the last year but they are unsure exactly what factors are contributing
to the problem. They would like to be able to quickly examine manufactured batches from multiple
perspectives and, if there are any anomalies or any unusual trends over time, they would then like to focus
on specific batches to understand the details.
Which of the following Cognos 8 Components would BEST address their needs?
A. Analysis Studio and Report Studio
B. Report Studio and Query Studio
C. Event Studio and Report Studio
D. Analysis Studio and Metric Studio
Answer: A
26. A company receives new orders each night. Those orders must be filled and packed for shipment before
the end of each day. The users need to know which orders have arrived during the night and which still
require filling throughout the day. Supervisors also need the flexibility to inquire against the database on a
variety of items outside of the standard order filling process (e.g. customer outstanding balance or shipping
rates).
Which of the following Cognos 8 components BEST fills the company’s needs?
A. Analysis Studio and Event Studio
PrepKing.com
B. Report Studio and Query Studio
C. Query Studio and Metric Studio
D. Analysis Studio and Report Studio
Answer: B
27. Which combination of Cognos 8 components is considered the BEST fit for addressing the needs of
company executives?
A. Analysis Studio reports and Query Studio
B. Metric Studio scorecards and Event Studio jobs
C. Report Studio reports and Query Studio
D. Metric Studio scorecards and Report Studio dashboards
Answer: D
28. Which of the following BEST describes the group of users who would typically use these Cognos 8
components: Metric Studio, Analysis Studio, and Query Studio?
A. Executives
B. Analysts and Authors
C. Knowledge workers and decision makers
D. Information Consumers
Answer: C
29. All of the following are considered part of the analyze phase of a BI development project EXCEPT:
A. Conduct a readiness assessment
B. Analyze solution scope
C. Determine detailed requirements
D. Create a logical data model
Answer: D
30. When following the Information Focused approach, what should the users bring to the initial interview?
A. Copies of key reports, structure of database tables, job responsibilities, and objectives
B. Job responsibilities, objectives, what information they need to get their work done, and copies of key
reports
C. List of reports they desire, what information they need to get their work done, and structure of database
tables
D. Job responsibilities, objectives, and a list of reports they desire
Answer: B
31. When a user requests a certain piece of information, the interviewer may ask what the user would do
with that information. From the techniques described in the BI Professional Workshop, why is the
interviewer asking this particular question?
PrepKing.com
A. To determine if the user is allowed access to that particular information and therefore should not be
included in his subject area.
B. To determine if the user understands how the information is functionally used within the organization.
C. To determine if the information is a security concern and should therefore be made unavailable to other
users.
D. To determine if the information is an actionable item for the user and therefore part of a business
requirement.
Answer:D
32. A user makes the following request:
“I need to see actual sales compared with projected sales, and margin range for branches within each
division, by product line, sales rep by sales manager, and cost center over time.”
Which of the following is a dimension identified by the request?
A. Cost
B. Margin Range
C. Actual / Projected
D. Sales Range
Answer: B
33. A user makes the following request:
“I need to see actual sales compared with projected sales, and margin range for branches within each
division, by product line, sales rep by sales manager, and cost center over time.”
Based on the user’s request, Actual Sales and Projected Sales have been identified as required measures.
Which of the following other measures would be included in an initial dimension map?
A. Unit Cost
B. Average Sales
C. Discount Amount
D. Sales Variance
Answer: D
34. A user makes the following request:
“I need to see the number of flights throughout the year that arrived or departed more than 15 minutes early
or late by origin and destination airport, by carrier, and by time of day. I want to see if the number of flights
delayed is greater for large carriers or small carriers.”
This request requires clarification to make the user’s intention clear. Which of the following will NOT further
clarify the user’s request?
A. Determine if origin and destination airports should be considered joined pairs (for example, from DFW to
ORD) or as separate dimensions.

Download COGNOS BI0-210 Dumps