SERVER+ EXAM 2004 Objectives

• Exam Number/Code : sk0-002
• Exam Name : SERVER+ EXAM 2004 Objectives
• Questions and Answers : 240 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA SK0-002
Title : Network+ Certification Exam

1. After upgrading the SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) protocol, the _____ can be looked up. It is a sequence of integers that uniquely identifies a path to a managed object.
A. MIB (Management Information Base)
B. OID (ObjectIDentifier)
C. register
D. community name
Answer: B

2. A technician purchases a new 120 GB IDE hard disk to use in an old server as a swap drive. After adding the drive to the server, the technician discovers that the operating system does not detect the drive.
After rebooting the server, the technician notices the drive is missing from POST and comes to the conclusion that the BIOS needs to be updated. The technician downloads the latest version of the BIOS update from the manufacturer website.
Which action should the technician take next?
A. backup the BIOS configuration to use later
B. install the BIOS update from a command prompt
C. create a bootable floppy and copy the BIOS update tools to the floppy
D. read the manufacturer’s guidelines and recommendations on installing the update
Answer: D

3. Click the Exhibit button.
From a local machine, connectivity with a server named server1.comptia.org is checked. It cannot be reached, but it can be accessed via the IP address.
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of this error?
A. The server is down.
B. The DNS server is down.
C. The local DNS cache is full.
D. The local DNS client is stopped.
E. The local DNS cache is corrupted.
Answer: B

4. The latest SCSI adaptor card is purchased from a vendor. Drivers for the operating system cannot be obtained. The SCSI adapter card is added to an existing server. Upon booting, the operating system does not detect the card. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The SCSI card is not seated correctly.
B. The termination is incorrectly set on the SCSI card.
C. The SCSI card is not listed on the operating system HCL (Hardware Compatibility List).
D. Operating system patches were not updated before installing the card.
Answer: C

5. A company plans to upgrade a network server. Before proceeding with the upgrade, the HCL (Hardware Compatibility List) and hardware is checked and necessary backups and documentation are made.
The existing 512 MB of SDRAM is replaced with 1024 MB. The 10 Mbps network card is replaced with a 10/100 PCI network card. When the server restarts, beeps sound and the server does not pass the POST.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The memory is not seated correctly.
B. The network card is not configured correctly.
C. The server does not support 1024 MB of memory.
D. Master SDRAM ECC needs to be enabled in the CMOS.
Answer: A

6. A large corporation is concerned about the amount of time it takes to back up their main file server. They are also concerned that their IT technician frequently forgets to change the backup tapes, thereby leaving the company open to data loss. Which backup system would solve both problems?
A. RAID
B. tape library
C. optical storage
D. disk to disk to tape
Answer: B

7. Which of the following is the functional description of a server connected between two separate IP subnets?
A. server as a bridge
B. server as a router
C. server as a switch
D. server as a data link
Answer: B

8. Which three should be documented after upgrading a SCSI RAID controller? (Select THREE)
A. disk utilization
B. installation date
C. adapter baselines
D. location slot of the RAID controller
E. status of the adapter card installation
F. RAID controller information (warranty, specifications etc.)
Answer: BDF

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RFID+ Certification

• Exam Number/Code : RF0-001
• Exam Name : RFID+ Certification
• Questions and Answers : 150 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA RF0-001
Title : RFID+ Certification

1. An RFID application at an automobile distributorship must be able to inventory the cars from a central location. Which of the following RFID technologies would work BEST in this application?
A. Active UHF
B. Passive high frequency (HF)
C. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF)
D. Active surface acoustic wave (SAW)
Answer: A

2. As the distance between tags in a passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID interrogation zone decreases, which of the following is affected?
A. Time required to power the tag
B. Distance at which the tag can be read
C. Coverage area of the interrogation zone
D. Power level of the field
Answer: B

3. When installing equipment into a proposed interrogation zone based on the site diagram, a technician observes that the cooling fans at the dock doors are directly in the way of the dock stands requiring installation. Which of the following actions should the technician take?
A. Cancel the installation because there are physical constraints preventing them from completing the job as designed.
B. Remove the fans; install the dock stands, and then remount the fans to the dock stand to complete the job.
C. Remove the fans and place them on the floor just outside of the proposed interrogation zone.
D. Contact the project manager to arrange a meeting with site management and determine the best solution.
Answer: D

4. In a high frequency (HF) passive system, the anticipated read range should be:
A. less than 3.2 feet (one meter).
B. between 3.2 and 16 feet (one and 5 meters).
C. greater than 32 feet (10 meters).
D. between 16 and 32 feet (5 meters and 10 meters).
Answer: A

5. An engineer plans to use RFID to track car engines in an automotive product line. The read range requirement needs to be a maximum of twelve feet (3.7 meters). Which of the following RFID technologies would be BEST to implement?
A. Passive low frequency (LF)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF)
C. Passive high frequency (HF)
D. Active
Answer: B

6. A customer has an existing RFID system that has been functioning accurately. The customer starts a new product line and observes a dramatic decrease in read rates. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take to determine the cause of the decreased read rates?
A. Do a site assessment for sources of interference.
B. Examine the currently installed equipment for failed parts.
C. Perform a tag placement test on the new product.
D. Attempt to read the new product using a handheld interrogator.
Answer: C

7. RFID printers are able to encode a single tag at a time because of their ability to isolate a tag. This is achieved:
A. by positioning and tuning the antenna.
B. because metal case blocks external interference allowing for the tag to be isolated.
C. because characteristics of far-field communication allow for only one tag to be encoded.
D. by ensuring that there is at least 8 inches (20 centimeters) between inserts.
Answer: A

8. All of the following are true of widely implemented “slap and ship” programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam

• Exam Number/Code : JK0-016
• Exam Name : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA JK0-016
Title : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam

1. All the workstations at a company have a static IP address. A newly deployed workstation is unable to connect to the company intranet server using an Internet browser. The technician can ping the intranet servers IP address. The MOST likely cause of this is an incorrect:
A. VLAN.
B. IP address on the new workstation.
C. DNS server setting on the client.
D. gateway setting on the client.
Answer: C

2. Everyday around lunch time there is network latency on the Windows proxy server 10.7. Which of the following network utilities can a technician run in order to determine the severity of the latency?
A. arp -t 10.1.1.7
B. tracert -t 10.1.1.7
C. ping -t 10.1.1.7
D. nbtstat -t 10.1.1.7
Answer: C

3. A 100 pair cable is typically used to connect:
A. telephony distribution.
B. businesses with more than 75 computers.
C. security cameras.
D. computer labs with more than 20 computers.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following software types would BEST be used at identifying and reacting to an attack by shutting down a port or dropping certain types of packets?
A. IDS
B. Packet sniffer
C. IPS
D. Port scanner
Answer: C

5. Which of the following network protocols allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices?
A. SNMP
B. IGMP
C. SMTP
D. TLS
Answer: A

6. Which of the following features of a switch will allow two switches to pass network information?
A. Trunking
B. Disabling the routing protocols
C. Port speeds
D. PoE
Answer: A

7. Ensuring that data is transmitted securely over an IP network is the main purpose of:
A. Telnet.
B. FTP.
C. SIP.
D. TLS.
Answer: D

8. Which of the following networks has the LEAST likelihood of collisions?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Bus
Answer: B

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CompTIA Network+ (2009 Edition)

• Exam Number/Code : N10-004
• Exam Name : CompTIA Network+ (2009 Edition)
• Questions and Answers : 490 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA N10-004
　　　Title : CompTIA Network+
(2009 Edition)

1. On a Windows network, users are reporting that they cannot access any network resources. The users can ping the IP address and connect to the network resource using the IP address. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A.The file server is offline.
B.The DNS server is not resolving correctly.
C.The DHCP server is not assigning correct IP addresses.
D.The domain controller is not responding.
Answer: B

2. For an enterprise to use one of the reserved private IP address ranges, as best practice they should coordinate with:
A.their legal department.
B.IANA.
C.IEEE.
D.their IT department.
Answer: D

3. Which of the following is a valid IP address in the public addressing scheme?
A.10.20.1.1
B.168.192.10.1
C.233.10.20.1
D.172.20.10.1
Answer: B

4. In the OSI model, which of the following layers would be the cause of a session time-out while browsing the web?
A.Layer 2
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 5
D.Layer 7
Answer: C

5. Which of the following does a star ring topology use for data transfer?
A.CSMA/CD
B.CSMA/CA
C.CHAP
D.Token passing
Answer: D

6. Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
A.WAP
B.Hub
C.Switch
D.Router
Answer: B

7. A computer configured to use DHCP cannot locate a DHCP server. Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) will assign which of the following addresses?
A.172.16.1.25
B.169.254.1.25
C.10.16.1.25
D.192.168.1.25
Answer: B

8. A user reports that when the phone rings in their house the wireless on their laptops becomes disconnected. Which of the following BEST describes the issue?
A.The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router
B.The cordless phones are 5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless
C.The cordless phones are 2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless
D.The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ-11 jack
Answer: C

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NETWORK+ CERTIFICATION EXAM, Greek

• Exam Number/Code : N10-103
• Exam Name : NETWORK+ CERTIFICATION EXAM, Greek
• Questions and Answers : 209 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA BR0-001
Title : CompTIA Bridge Exam – Security+

1. Which of the following specifies a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server?
A.Vulnerability assessment
B.Imaging software
C.Patch management
D.Configuration baseline
Answer: D

2. Which of the following technologies can be used as a means to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats?
A.Intrusion detection
B.Virtualization
C.Kiting
D.Cloning
Answer: B

3. Which of the following encryption methods is often used along with L2TP?
A.S/MIME
B.SSH
C.3DES
D.IPSec
Answer: D

4. Which of the following requires an update to the baseline after installing new software on a machine?
A.Signature-based NIPS
B.Signature-based NIDS
C.Honeypot
D.Behavior-based HIDS
Answer: D

5. Which of the following describes a static NAT?
A.A static NAT uses a one to many mapping.
B.A static NAT uses a many to one mapping.
C.A static NAT uses a many to many mapping.
D.A static NAT uses a one to one mapping.
Answer: D

6. Which of the following would an attacker use to footprint a system?
A.RADIUS
B.Password cracker
C.Port scanner
D.Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: C

7. An administrator wants to proactively collect information on attackers and their attempted methods of gaining access to the internal network. Which of the following would allow the administrator to do this?
A.NIPS
B.Honeypot
C.DMZ
D.NIDS
Answer: B

8. Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive way of checking the environment for known software flaws?
A.Protocol analyzer
B.Vulnerability scanner
C.Port scanner
D.Penetration test
Answer: B

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Network+ Certification

• Exam Number/Code : n10-003
• Exam Name : Network+ Certification
• Questions and Answers : 865 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA N10-003
Title : CompTIA Network+ (2007 Edition) Exam

1. 802.11 security is defined in:
A. 802.11a.
B. 802.11b.
C. 802.11g.
D. 802.11i.
Answer: D

2. Which of the following is a self-assigned address based on APIPA?
A. 169.255.1.0
B. 169.254.1.1
C. 192.168.1.0
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: B

3. A user connects to the companys intranet server via a VPN connection from a small office / home office (SOHO) using the broadband service. One day, the user cannot successfully connect to the VPN and receives an error message that states “Username and password are invalid on the domain.” Which of the following should be done to correct this problem?
A. Call the corporate help desk to have the VPN server rebooted
B. Re-enter the username and password in the VPN connection and reconnect
C. Call the broadband Internet provider to replace the SOHO router with a newer model
D. Ping the corporate VPN server to ensure it is online
Answer: B

4. When one connection to a host fails in a full mesh network, which of the following is true?
A. All hosts can communicate.
B. No hosts can communicate.
C. Half of the hosts will lose communication.
D. Only the two hosts between the failed connection will lose communication.
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is true regarding NetWare Directory Services (NDS) configuration?
A. Remote users can access the tree through dial-in connections.
B. Mobile users do not require changing the NDS name context.
C. Remote users do not require a special NDS object entry.
D. There are no differences between mobile users and remote users.
Answer: A

6. Which of the following network services is responsible for mapping names to IP addresses?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. IMAP4
D. Telnet
Answer: B

7. Which of the following methods of user authentication is the MOST secure?
A. CHAP
B. Kerberos
C. TACACS
D. EAP
Answer: B

8. 2217.10223/28 is an example of which kind of notation?
A. ARP
B. CIDR
C. DNS
D. Port Number
Answer: B

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I-NET+ CERTIFICATION

• Exam Number/Code : IK0-002
• Exam Name : I-NET+ CERTIFICATION
• Questions and Answers : 221 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA IK0-002
Title : I-Net+ Certification Exam

1. What uses vector graphics to display web images?
A. Flash
B. Shockwave
C. Real Media
D. QuickTime VR
Answer: A

2. You have a Remote access server (RAS) used by your colleagues working at home. You are concerned about the security. What should you do to have a better security measure?
A. Installing firewall
B. Change password
C. Use SSL for the connection
D. Enable call back
Answer: D

3. What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?
A. LDAP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. NNTP
Answer: A

4. How are cookies stored?
A. Unencrypted text file on client
B. Unencrypted text file on server
C. Encrypted text file on client
D. Encrypted text file on server
Answer: A

5. Which supports animation of graphics on web?
A. GIF87A
B. GIF89A
C. jpeg
D. png
Answer: B

6. What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?
A. 85.xx
B. 65.xx
C. 100.xx
D. 165.xx
Answer: D

7. How many 64 Kbps channels are in a ISDN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

8. Which one has speeds off 51.84Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. OC1
D. OC3
Answer: C

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e-BIZ+ Certification Exam

• Exam Number/Code : EK0-002
• Exam Name : e-BIZ+ Certification Exam
• Questions and Answers : 158 Q&As
• Update Time: 2009-09-18

CDIA+ CERTIFICATION EXAM-2002 OBJECTIVES

• Exam Number/Code : 225-020
• Exam Name : CDIA+ CERTIFICATION EXAM-2002 OBJECTIVES
• Questions and Answers : 85 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA 225-020
Title : CDIA+ Certification Exam-2002 Objectives

1. A content management solution has been designed for a company. In order to complete the implementation it will be necessary to remove user access to the content management database for several hours a day for several weeks.
How should this requirement be addressed?
A. Solicit the vendors?? input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.
B. Solicit the solution owner??s input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.
C. Redesign the solution so that all of the implementation can be handles in one 24- hour period.
D. Indicate to the solution owner that the best time for implementation tasks is 10 pm
Answer: B

2. Who is most likely to determine the origin of the bottlenecks if the productivity of a new workflow system is less than expected?
A. End-user
B. Help Desk
C. IT Department
D. System Integrator
Answer: D

3. An Implementation Plan for a new imaging application should contain which activities?
A. Forms design, create the document retention strategy document and layout the workflow rules and roles.
B. Integrate the production imaging system into the existing IT network, connect it with the legacy systems; upgrade all of the desktop computers.
C. Verify that images are delivered to the desktop, that the records are written in the database, and check that the images are stored on optical disks.
D. Define production procedures; create user and technical documentation; plan and execute user and system administration and plan the roll-out in the organization.
Answer: D

4. A customer is implementing a workflow system with electronic dossiers. During the design of the workflow it has been discovered that there are many exceptions to the process.
What is the first step in handling the exceptions?
A. Validate exceptions through a third party.
B. Get a commitment on the number of exceptions.
C. Redesign the workflow system to handle every exception.
D. Recommend to the client that business processed be redesigned.
Answer: D

5. An imaging consultant has just finished a presentation showing document retrieval over the Web. The client has specified that this is a requirement of the project.
However, after the demonstration the IT group is expressing concerns about opening their system up to the Internet.
How should the consultant respond to the IT group?
A. Tell them that the project team is satisfied.
B. Ignore them, as the project requirements are met.
C. Demonstrate the retrieval of the documents again.
D. Explain to them the security components of the solution.
Answer: D

6. An organization is migrating from an older document imaging system to a new system.
What is the most important risk to consider first?
A. Barcode compatibility.
B. Lack of documentation.
C. Reliable and accurate retrieval.
D. Database capacity and transfer rate.
Answer: C

7. A company, TestInside Inc, is using 90% of its network capacity. They plan to scan 5,000 images per day to a network file server. In order to meet the increased demands on the system, which of the following should be increased?
A. The network bandwidth.
B. The number of scanners.
C. The number of network servers.
D. The number of users on the network.
Answer: A

8. An organization currently microfilms all source documents. While filming, the source document is unavailable for a minimum of three days. A document imaging system has been proposed where documents will now be scanned.
What is the best advantage of the proposed system?
A. Scanned images are higher quality.
B. Documents are available immediately.
C. Scanners are more reliable than cameras.
D. Microfilm can be created from the scanned documents.
Answer: B

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CDIA+ Certification

• Exam Number/Code : 225-030
• Exam Name : CDIA+ Certification
• Questions and Answers : 255 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA 225-030
Title : CDIA+ Certification Exam

1. A legal customer wants to place identifying marks on each document as it is scanned. What is the procedure commonly called?
A. Barcoding
B. Imprinting
C. Prefetching
D. Thresholding
Answer: B

2. Who is most likely to determine the origin of the bottlenecks if the productivity of a new workflow system is
less than expected?
A. End-user
B. Help Desk
C. IT Department
D. System Integrator
Answer: D

3. An Implementation Plan for a new imaging application should contain which activities?
A. Forms design, create the document retention strategy document and layout the workflow rules and roles.
B. integrate the production imaging system into the exsiting netwoke,connect it with the legacy systems,upgrade all of the desktop computers.
C. Verify that images are delivered to the desktop, that the records are written in the database, and check that the images are stored on optical disks.
D. difine production producers,creat user and techcical documention,administration and plan the roll-out in the organization.
Answer: D

4. All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:
A. change requests
B. lead- and lag-times.
C. resource requirements.
D. resource availability.
Answer: A

5. A customer is implementing a workflow system with electronic dossiers. During the design of the workflow it has been discovered that there are many exceptions to the process. What is the first step in handling the exceptions?
A. Validate exceptions through a third party.
B. Get a commitment on the number of exceptions.
C. Redesign the workflow system to handle every exception.
D. Recommend to the client that business processed be redesigned.
Answer: D

6. A company, Certkiller Inc, is using 90% of its network capacity. They plan to scan 5,000 images per day to a network file server. In order to meet the increased demands on the system, which of the following should be increased?
A. The network bandwidth.
B. The number of scanners.
C. The number of network servers.
D. The number of users on the network.
Answer: A

7. A content management solution has been designed for a company. In order to complete the implementation it will be necessary to remove user access to the content management database for several hours a day for several weeks. How should this requirement be addressed?
A. Solicit the vendors’ input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.
B. Solicit the solution owner’s input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.
C. Redesign the solution so that all of the implementation can be handles in one 24-hour period.
D. Indicate to the solution owner that the best time for implementation tasks is 10 pm – 12 am daily.
Answer: B

8. The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail. All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document Management System (DMS). If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per week, how many images will be scanned per week?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 400
D. 600
Answer: B

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