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November 23 2009

Dell DC0-280 Dumps

dell networking professional certification exam

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-280
  • Exam Name : dell networking professional certification exam
  • Questions and Answers : 140 Q&As

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November 23 2009

Dell DC0-160 Dumps

dell storage foundations exam

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-160
  • Exam Name : dell storage foundations exam
  • Questions and Answers : 148 Q&As

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November 23 2009

Dell DC0-140 Dumps

business continuance foundations

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-140
  • Exam Name : business continuance foundations
  • Questions and Answers : 140 Q&As

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November 23 2009

Dell DC0-120 Dumps

systems management foundations

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-120
  • Exam Name : systems management foundations
  • Questions and Answers : 139 Q&As

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November 23 2009

Dell DC0-100 Dumps

poweredge server foundations

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-100
  • Exam Name : poweredge server foundations
  • Questions and Answers : 132 Q&As

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November 23 2009

Dell DC0-261 Dumps

dell storage networking professional exam-version2

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-261
  • Exam Name : dell storage networking professional exam-version2
  • Questions and Answers : 124 Q&As

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PrepKing.com Dell DC0-261 Sample Questions

Exam : Dell DC0-261
Title : Dell Storage Networking Professional Exam

1. Which two tasks can Navisphere Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. comparing archived and real-time performance data
B. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC switches
C. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC storage arrays
D. tracking performance trends for hosts connected to Dell / EMC Storage Area Networks (SANs)
Answer: AC
2. Which four LUN characteristics can be displayed in Navisphere Analyzer? (Choose four.)
A. Bytes Tx / Rx
B. Utilization (%)
C. Capacity (GB)
D. Response Time (ms)
E. Total Bandwidth (MB/sec.)
F. Total Throughput (I/O /sec.)
Answer: BDEF
3. Which three operations are possible using clones? (Choose three.)
A. Up to eight clones can be made from a single source LUN.
B. While a clone is fractured, it can be connected to a host for use.
C. A fractured clone can be accessed for read and write operations.
D. A snapshot of a clone must be reverse synchronized prior to mounting.
E. A live clone can be mounted by a secondary host to use as a standard LUN.
Answer: ABC
4. Which three statements are correct about SAN Copy? (Choose three.)
A. SAN Copy can be installed on any model CX array.
B. SAN Copy is a storage array-based Data Mover application.
C. SAN Copy transfers data over a Fibre Channel SAN, as opposed to an IP LAN.
D. SAN Copy sessions can be managed either by Navisphere Manager or by CLI.
Answer: BCD
5. What steps should you perform to create a copy of a source LUN in a second storage array, while
minimizing unavailability of the source LUN?
A. use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN, then take a snapshot on the second storage array
B. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the snapshot to the second storage
array
C. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN to the second storage
array
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, run MirrorView to mirror the snapshot to the second array, then use
SAN Copy to synchronize the mirror with the source LUN
Answer: B
6. SAN Copy sessions offer which three capabilities? (Choose three.)
A. providing content push or pull capability
B. offloading Storage Array processing onto hosts
C. migrating data from older arrays to newer arrays in the same SAN fabric
D. distributing and collecting content between the central location and branch offices
Answer: ACD
7. Which two are examples of how SnapView can be used in conjunction with MirrorView? (Choose two.)
A. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror for use at the remote site.
B. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then back up the snapshot to tape.
C. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the primary mirror and then mirror the snapshot to the
remote site.
D. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then clone the snapshot for use at
the primary site.
Answer: AB
8. Which statement best describes bi-directional mirroring as implemented by MirrorView ?
A. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system can be configured as the primary for one mirror
and a secondary for another mirror.
B. By utilizing two storage systems and one tape drive, the two storage systems are configured as a
primary and the secondary is backed up to tape.
C. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system is configured as the primary and the other
storage system is configured as the secondary.
D. By utilizing three storage systems, the two storage systems are configured as a primary and the third
storage system is configured as a secondary that is used to store the primary images.
Answer: A
9. You are connecting a CX700 to a CX500 through a fabric for Mirrorview. Which two zones must be
completed? (Choose two.)
A. Port 1 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the CX500.
B. Port 1 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the CX500.
C. Port 3 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the CX500.
D. Port 3 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the CX500.
Answer: CD
10. How many LUNs are required for the Clone Private LUN?
A. one per SP
B. one per clone
C. one per clone group
D. one per storage system
Answer: A
11. You have a source LUN on a CX500 for which you maintain snapshots for tape backup. You need to
create a new snapshot for this source LUN but are unable to do so. You can create snapshots of other
source LUNs on the array. What is the most likely problem?
A. You have reached the maximum limit of 50 Cache LUNs.
B. You have reached the maximum limit of 8 snapshots per source LUN.
C. You have reached the maximum limit of 150 snapshots per storage system.
D. You have reached the maximum limit of 300 snapshots per storage system.
Answer: B
12. How are the LUNs for the Write Intent Log (WIL) configured?
A. WIL LUNs are configured automatically.
B. After manually binding the LUNs, the WIL is automatically configured.
C. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on a per-array basis.
D. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on one array. The WIL is then automatically replicated
to the other array.
Answer: C
13. You are concerned that the loss of an SP might cause you to lose all of your existing snapshot sessions.
What should you do to prevent losing existing snapshot sessions?
A. add a UPS to the storage array
B. use PowerPath to gain failover support
C. select the Persistent mode when starting a snapshot session
D. Nothing, the Vaulting process automatically saves all snapshots to disk in the PSM LUN.
Answer: C
14. Which two states can a clone LUN be in before it can be fractured? (Choose two.)
A. consistent
B. synchronizing
C. synchronized
D. reverse out-of-sync
Answer: AC
15. Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. naviadm
B. admhost
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: B
16. You want to implement site level disaster recovery. Which two are valid options to consider? (Choose
two.)
A. Use SAN Copy to copy LUNs from the primary site to the recovery site.
B. Use SAN Copy to mirror a LUN from the primary site to the recovery site.
C. Use MirrorView to mirror LUNs from the primary site to another local array.
D. Use SnapView to create a clone, then use SAN Copy to copy the clone to the recovery site.
Answer: AD
17. You have installed SAN Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E
18. Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
B. Snapshots may be created using the admhost CLI utility.
C. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
D. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
E. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
Answer: ACD
19. Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.
C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just like
another LUN.
Answer: ACD
20. You want User1 to have Administrator access to storage system A that is located in a branch office.
However, you want User1 to have read-only access to the remaining storage systems within the domain.
Which scenario best accomplishes this task?
A. User accounts must be either global or local because the user inherits the most restrictive role assigned
to the user.
B. Create a local account with Administrator access on storage system A, then create a global account for
User1 with Monitor access.
C. Create a global account with Monitor access on storage system A, then modify the account policy to
allow User1 to administer only storage system A.
D. Create a global account with Monitor access on the master node, then have User1 log in to storage
system A using the local default manager account.
Answer: B
21. What is the method of communication used in Navisphere 6.x?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Answer: C
22. Which two items are contained in a Storage Group? (Choose two.)
A. Hosts
B. LUNs
C. HBAs
D. Zones
E. RAID Groups
Answer: AB
23. What two statements are correct when using Storage Groups? (Choose two.)
A. A dedicated Storage Group can contain one or more LUNs.
B. Multiple heterogenous hosts can be connected to the same Storage Group.
C. If you connect a host that is connected to a Storage Group to another Storage Group, the host server will
disconnect from the first Storage Group.
D. In a cluster environment, you must connect each host in the cluster to the same Storage Group and
change the Storage Group sharing state to dedicated.
Answer: AC
24. What two statements are correct about Access Logix? (Choose two.)
A. Access Logix is host-based LUN masking software.
B. Access Logix is array-based LUN masking software.
C. Access Logix enables multiple heterogeneous arrays to connect to the same host.
D. Access Logix’s volume access control enforces strict access rules where multiple hosts share a single
storage port.
Answer: BD
25. Which Navisphere user type restricts you from creating additional user accounts but allows LUNs to be
bound?
A. Root
B. Monitor
C. Manager
D. Operator
E. Administrator
Answer: C
26. After completing an NDU on a Dell / EMC storage array, what is the first step that you should perform
through Navisphere 6.x?
A. delete and reregister all host through the connectivity status window
B. reconfigure and enable the read and write cache on the storage processors
C. under the Software tab, choose the option to revert any software that requires a revert
D. configure the PSM LUN through a web browser by utilizing the \\ipaddress\setup screen
E. restart the Management Server through a web browser by utilizing the \\ipaddress\setup screen
Answer: B
27. You are selecting a disk to be used as a hot-spare replacement. Which disk IDs are exempt from use on
a CX500?
A. 0:0 – 0:2
B. 0:0 – 0:4
C. 0:0 – 0:8
D. Any disk can be used as a hot-spare replacement.
Answer: B
28. Which three methods can Navisphere Event Monitor use to send notification to users? (Choose three.)
A. CIM
B. pager
C. e-mail
D. SNMP
E. WebEx
F. Net Send Broadcast
Answer: BCD
29. You are selecting a disk to be used as a hot-spare replacement. Which disk IDs are exempt from use on
an FC4700?
A. 0:0 – 0:2
B. 0:0 – 0:4
C. 0:0 – 0:8
D. Any disk can be used as a hot-spare replacement.
Answer: C
30. You are creating a RAID Group that will house a hot-spare disk replacement. What is the maximum
number of disks that can be selected?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: B
31. Which two methods determine the SP ownership of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. either SP can be selected to own the LUN
B. SP ownership can be automatically assigned
C. SP ownership can be determined by SP arbitration
D. both SPs can be selected to own the LUN for high availability
Answer: AB
32. Which term describes the ability to allow LUNs to be exclusively assigned and accessed by a specific
list of hosts?
A. VSAN
B. zoning
C. LUN masking
D. LUN partitioning
E. dynamic LUN expansion
Answer: C
33. Which four are valid Fibre Channel port types? (Choose four.)
A. F_Port
B. X_Port
C. N_Port
D. E_Port
E. P_Port
F. FL_Port
Answer: ACDF
34. What are two benefits of Fibre Channel over SCSI? (Choose two.)
A. lower cost
B. higher availability
C. increased scalability
D. Fibre Channel uses only optical cabling.
E. A bus topology provides greater expandability.
Answer: BC
35. Which two statements about Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose two.)
A. SANs provide file level I/O access to storage resources.
B. SANs provide block level I/O access to storage resources.
C. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources via IP / Ethernet networking.
D. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources across a high speed, low latency, Fibre Channel network.
Answer: BD
36. Which describes a Host Bus Adapter (HBA) in a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
A. The HBA is typically built into the storage array.
B. The HBA is always proprietary to the Host / Server vendor.
C. The HBA is a host-based controller providing access to network infrastructure.
D. The HBA is a device that processes TCP packets, thus offloading host CPU cycles.
E. The HBA is a storage controller that provides RAID and other failover functionality.
Answer: C
37. Which storage architecture best describes external SCSI-connected storage arrays?
A. Storage Area Network (SAN)
B. Direct Attached Storage (DAS)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Remote Storage Networking (RSN)
Answer: B
38. In a Storage Area Network (SAN) configuration, the RAID intelligence that manages the storage array is
typically located in the _____.
A. host
B. storage processor
C. Fibre Channel switch
D. RAID management control device
Answer: B
39. What are four characteristics of World Wide Names (WWNs)? (Choose four.)
A. WWNs can be used in an IP NIC.
B. Each device has a pre-defined, unique address.
C. WWNs are used to route SAN data and provide zoning and failover functionality.


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November 19 2009

Dell DC0-200 Dumps

certified server professionla exam

  • Exam Number/Code : DC0-200
  • Exam Name : certified server professionla exam
  • Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As

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PrepKing.com Dell DC0-200 Sample Questions

Exam : Dell DC0-200
Title : Certified Server Professional Exam

1. Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel Network
Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD
2. You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet. From
what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB
3. Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C
4. What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the Preferred
Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A
5. You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
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A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD
6. Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C
7. What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A
8. Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team
F. enter the path and filename of the configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE
9. You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and view
installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
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protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC
10. What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A
11. You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B
12. You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD
13. What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D
14. Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
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C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD
15. How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C
16. Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD
17. Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B
18. Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC
19. Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
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Answer: ACE
20. You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C
21. Where in the Dell Server Assistant (DSA) interface can you erase all hard disks in preparation for a
manual installation of a new OS?
A. Drive Utility
B. Server Setup
C. Setup Wizard
D. System Tools
Answer: D
22. In Array Manager, what is the definition of a virtual disk?
A. physical fibre storage subsystem
B. physical SCSI storage subsystem
C. one physical hard drive inside a storage subsystem
D. abstract entity made up of array disks and/or array segments
Answer: D
23. Which OpenManage component is the central repository for asset and inventory information?
A. IT Assistant
B. Server Agent
C. Array Manager
D. DRAC II Web Console
Answer: A
24. At a remote site, a server is no longer able to communicate on the network. Which tool would an
administrator use to investigate the issue?
A. SMB
B. Server Assistant
C. Server Diagnostics
D. Remote Access Controller
Answer: D
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25. In OpenManage Server Administrator, what does a red X indicate?
A. The component is about to fail.
B. The component has been removed.
C. The component has not been installed.
D. The component has a critical (failure) condition.
Answer: D
26. You have the PowerEdge server running Red Hat Linux Advanced Server Operating System. You want
to be able to accomplish the following: — report health of all system components — change System Reset
Timer value under the Auto Recovery tab — save Command Log under the Logs tab — set the Beep
Speaker on the Server Alert Action under Alert Management tab — view details in About box Which two
access privileges allow you to accomplish these tasks? (Choose two.)
A. root user
B. any valid user
C. administrator user
D. any valid user with root privileges
Answer: AD
27. Which two steps are part of configuring SNMP for OpenManage products on the managed node?
(Choose two.)
A. configure SNMP community names
B. configure SNMP security for all community names to READ ONLY
C. configure the contact and location in the Agent tab of the SNMP service
D. configure a trap destination on systems relying on SNMP as their communication protocol
Answer: AD
28. You just added a new Dell PowerEdge server to the network. In order to use Dell OpenManage IT
Assistant to manage it, which three steps do you need to take? (Choose three.)
A. verify the SNMP settings of the new server
B. install Dell OpenManage Remote Access Controller on the new server
C. install Dell OpenManage Managed System applications on the new server
D. install Dell OpenManage Management Station application on the new server
E. ensure that the new server’s IP address is in the discovery specified for OpenManage IT Assistant
Answer: ACE
29. OpenManage Server Administrator can determine the status of which two server components? (Choose
two.)
A. fans
B. memory
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C. disk utilization
D. processor load
E. network activity
Answer: AB
30. Which three requirements must you meet to install OMSA in a Red Hat Linux environment? (Choose
three.)
A. You must be logged in as root.
B. You must purchase the Linux version of OMSA.
C. You must do a custom installation to support Linux.
D. The running kernel must have loadable module support enabled.
E. The “ucd-snmp” or “net-snmp” package that is provided with the operating system must be installed.
Answer: ADE
31. If there is a loss of power redundancy on your PowerEdge server, in which three ways can Dell
OpenManage IT Assistant report this? (Choose three.)
A. An SNMP trap can be logged in the OpenManage IT Assistant.
B. The status panel for that system indicates which power supply failed.
C. Systems Status is marked as “Warning” in OpenManage IT Assistant.
D. Dell IT Assistant sends an alert to Dell OpenManage Server Administrator.
Answer: ABC
32. You are monitoring 100 servers in your environment using ITA. You want to determine which servers are
equipped with a remote access controller and the Array Manager agent, as well as view the physical
memory of each server on one screen. How should you view this information from ITA?
A. go to the ITA Logs tab, select the information you want to view, and click the Refresh button
B. go to the ITA Remote Address Book, select the information you want to view, and click the Get
Addresses button
C. go to the ITA Inventory view, select the information you want to view, and click the Get Inventory button
D. go to the ITA Search view, select all the information you want to view using one query, and click the
Search button
Answer: C
33. If the server is operating normally, the Remote Access Controller allows an administrator to do which
two tasks? (Choose two.)
A. create a utility partition
B. perform an orderly shutdown of the server
C. display storage information in a graphical environment
D. manage the server by redirecting the console output to a remote console
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Answer: BD
34. What is required to enable a management application such as Dell OpenManage IT Assistant to receive
SNMP traps from Dell OpenManage Server Agent/Server Administrator?
A. You make sure OpenManage IT Assistant has discovered the managed node running Dell OpenManage
Server Administrator.
B. You configure the SNMP service on the computer on which OpenManage IT Assistant is running (the
management station) to the correct read community name so that it can read the traps correctly .
C. Nothing needs to be done. OpenManage IT Assistant automatically registers to receive traps when it
discovers the managed node on which Dell OpenManage Server Administrator is running.
D. You configure the SNMP service trap destinations on the computer on which Dell OpenManage Server
Administrator is running to send traps to the management station (where OpenManage IT Assistant is
running).
Answer: D
35. What are four valid event actions in ITA? (Choose four.)
A. a page
B. an alert popup
C. a forward event
D. an e-mail message
E. a Windows event log insertion
Answer: ABDE
36. What type of security authentication scheme is used by OMSA under Windows 2000?
A. NDS
B. PAM
C. NTLM
D. SNMP
Answer: C
37. The system administrator notices the Dell badge on the front of the server is flashing orange on the
PowerEdge 2650. What utility should the system administrator load to determine the cause of the flashing
diagnostic indicator?
A. Dell Server Assistant
B. OpenManage Array Manager
C. Dell Client Configuration Utility
D. OpenManage Server Administrator
Answer: D


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