ES Router Configuration

• Exam Number/Code : 2B0-011
• Exam Name : ES Router Configuration
• Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As

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PrepKing.com Enterasys Networks 2B0-011 Sample Questions

1. Which two types of VLAN ports are supported on the X-Pedition Router?
A. Access and Full Duplex
B. Control and Hybrid
C. Trunk and Control
D. Access and Trunk
Answer: D

2. What are the two Queuing Management policies on the X-Pedition Router?
A. Strict Priority, Control Policy
B. Control Policy, Precedence Policy
C. Strict Priority, Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Control Policy, Weighted Fair Queuing
Answer: C

3. When an L3 interface is created on the X-Pedition Router and associated with a single port, which type of VLAN is created?
A. Implicit Port based
B. Implicit Subnet based
C. Explicit Bridged-Protocol based
D. No VLAN is created or required
Answer: B

4. Which two of the following descriptions are characteristics of the X-Pedition Router?
A. Routing is performed by hardware
B. The addition of new interfaces affects routing performance
C. Forwarding and lookups are performed on each individual module
D. Implementing Quality of Service and/or security Access Control Lists decreases performance
Answer: AC

5. During the boot process, what are all the physical ports initially added to?
A. default VLAN
B. configured VLAN
C. protocol-based VLAN
D. Physical ports are not detected during boot process
Answer: A

6. What is the second step to gain access to an X-Pedition Router when the password is unknown?
A. Copy the startup file to a backup
B. Power cycle the router
C. Press CTRL+ALT+DEL
D. Rename the active file to bootup
Answer: A

7. Which one of the following statements best describes the L2 operation of the X-Pedition Router?
A. It acts as a Store and Forward switch.
B. It acts as a Simple Cut-Through switch.
C. It acts as an Adaptive Cut-Through switch.
D. It acts as a Store and Cut-Through switch.
Answer: A

8. Which two L3 multicast routing protocols does the X-Pedition Router support?
A. PIM-SM
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. DVMRP
Answer: AD

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Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects

• Exam Number/Code : E20-840
• Exam Name : Storage Management Expert Exam for Technology Architects
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As

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Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators

• Exam Number/Code : e20-597
• Exam Name : Backup & Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators
• Questions and Answers : 260 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC e20-597 Sample Questions

1. You want to deploy a NetWorker backup solution in an environment consisting of five Linux servers, two HP-UX, four Solaris, four Windows 2000 and three Windows 2003.
One of the Solaris servers is currently idle so you decide to use it as the NetWorker server. The customer purchased a NetWorker Power Edition for UNIX.
How many additional licenses are needed?
A. Seven client connections and three ClientPaks
B. Seven client connections and five ClientPaks
C. Eight client connections and two ClientPaks
D. Eight client connections and three ClientPaks
Answer: D

2. A company wants to move to a backup-to-disk solution, and is considering Celerra. What is an advantage of this solution?
A. Built-in tape acceleration algorithm
B. Extra hardware not required on the storage node
C. File system shares dedicated to individual storage nodes
D. Fragments file system to improve writes
Answer: B

3. What is an advantage of using EMC OnCourse?
A. Automated file transfers across Celerra systems
B. Creates local, point-in-time logical disk copies
C. Provides a “near instant” snapshot of a filesystem on the same or different Celerras
D. Automated file transfers across existing servers
Answer: C

4. Which NetWorker edition is needed to configure a data zone with a NetWorker server with 16 LTO2 devices and 10 storage nodes with 32 devices each?
A. Business
B. Network
C. Power
D. Workgroup
Answer: C

5. Your customer is planning a NetWorker backup environment. They will have one NetWorker server and two storage nodes, all sharing the four tape drives in one autochanger.
How many dynamic drive sharing licenses are needed?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C

6. For which type of NetWorker backup is the client file index backed up?
A. Client-initiated and server-initiated
B. Client-initiated only
C. Raw backups
D. Server-initiated only
Answer: D

7. In NetWorker 7.4, what could be done to add a client to a group?
A. Drag the client onto the group resource
B. Drag the client onto the pool resource
C. Select the client in the group resource
D. Select the client in the pool resource
Answer: A

8. Why are split-mirror snapshots preferred for disaster recovery?
A. Always consistent
B. Faster recovery compared to copy on write snapshots
C. Provides a complete copy of production data
D. Requires less storage space compared to copy on write snapshots
Answer: C

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Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam

• Exam Number/Code : e20-593
• Exam Name : Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam
• Questions and Answers : 260 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC e20-593 Sample Questions

1. You noticed that a full level save set is still browsable even after its browse time has expired. What could be the cause?
A.A clone of the save set exists and has a longer retention period
B.Incremental save sets depending upon this full save set are still
browsable
C.The volume containing the save set is still browsable
D.There was a read error on the volume containing the save set, giving it
a “suspect” status
Answer: B

2. Which NetWorker command can be used to find out the dates that a specific save set has been backed up?
A.mminfo
B.mmls
C.nsrinfo
D.nsrls
Answer: A

3. You are designing a backup schedule for a file system that changes frequently.
Which NetWorker weekly backup schedule results in the fastest recovery?
A.Full incr incr incr incr incr incr
B.Full 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.Full 4 7 4 7 4 7
D.Full 8 8 8 8 8 8
Answer: D

4. The status of a volume was prematurely set to full. Which command can be used to change the status of the volume to continue writing to it?
A.jbedit
B.mminfo
C.nsrck
D.nsrmm
Answer: D

5. You are designing a solution for a customer using NetWorker and PowerSnap, to create and back up copy on write (CoW) snapshots of a STD device on a DMX-3 accessed from a Solaris 9 application host. The STD volume size is 300 GB with a change rate of 10%.
What is the minimum VDEV (Virtual Device) size needed?
A.30 GB
B.270 GB
C.300 GB
D.330 GB
Answer: C

6. You want to make sure that only NetWorker Server S1 can back up client C1′s data. What do you need to do?
A.Add C1 to /nsr/res file on the NetWorker Server S1
B.Add C1 to /nsr/res/clients file on the NetWorker Server S1
C.Add S1 to /nsr/res/permissions on the client machine C1
D.Add S1 to /nsr/res/servers file on the client machine C1
Answer: D

7. Which NetWorker server daemon is responsible for starting other server and storage node daemons?
A.nsrd
B.nsrjobd
C.nsrmmdbd
D.nsrmmgd
Answer: A

8. Which NetWorker Management Console server daemon acts as a mini web server and responds to the initial http request from console clients?
A.dbsrv9
B.gstd
C.gsttclsh
D.nsrd
Answer: C

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Technology Architect Solutions Design

• Exam Number/Code : e20-322
• Exam Name : Technology Architect Solutions Design
• Questions and Answers : 232 Q&As

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1. A customer has a SAN fabric consisting of several MDS-9509s for host to disk array connectivity.
They have purchased a Fibre Channel tape library and want to implement LAN-free backups. You have proposed making a tape VSAN on the existing MDS infrastructure and have recommended that they use QoS so that tape I/O does not use ISL bandwidth at the expense of disk I/O.
Which license is needed on the MDS directors?
A. Enterprise package
B. Fabric Manager Server
C. Storage Services Enabler package
D. Tape Write Acceleration package
Answer: A

2. A prospective customer has presented you with multiple applications. All applications have high write activity levels and unpredictable growth patterns. The applications are currently hosted on direct-attached storage in a RAID 1 configuration. They are concerned with making too many
changes at one time in their environment.
The prospect has asked you to justify your recommendation of RAID 1/0 on the CLARiiON configuration you are proposing. How do you respond to the request?
A. RAID 1 has a higher write penalty than RAID 1/0
B. RAID 1 is less flexible for growing LUNs than RAID 1/0
C. RAID 1 is unavailable in current CLARiiON configurations
D. RAID 1 LUNs are unable to utilize write cache
Answer: B

3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy.
C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Answer: D

4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Answer: D

5. A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices between 30 and 50 km away.
At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from 0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices.
What is the most cost-effective EMC solution?
A. 1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office.
2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers.
B. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices.
2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional offices using Open Replicator.
3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy.
C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Answer: D

6. You are designing an EMC ControlCenter solution for a new customer to reduce the overall storage and management costs. The customer would like management and reporting on a variety of hosts and storage systems. All managed objects are located in one data center.
Which factors must you consider when designing an EMC ControlCenter infrastructure?
A. Network firewall type, number of hosts, and total storage capacity
B. Network firewall type, number of IP switches, and number of Fibre Channel switches
C. Network latency, number of Exchange servers, and number of Oracle database
D. Network latency, number of hosts, and number of arrays
Answer: D

7. A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user. They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution.
The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type?
A. RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18
B. RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20
C. RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24
D. RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28
Answer: A

8. Using SAN Copy, a source Windows LUN of 100 GB has been copied to a 200 GB target LUN. After assigning the target LUN to the new host and running Disk Administrator to recognize the drive,what must be done to the Windows partition on the new host to see the LUN as 100 GB?
A. Nothing; the partition will be seen as 100 GB immediately
B. Run diskpart and set the partition size to 100 GB
C. Run the diskpar command and set the partition size to 100 GB
D. Run the format command and set the partition size to 100 GB
Answer: A

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emc technology foundations-nas

• Exam Number/Code : e20-080
• Exam Name : emc technology foundations-nas
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC e20-080 Sample Questions

1. What is a type of network topology?
A. Bus
B. Core to edge
C. Fabric
D. Link
Answer: A

2. Which statement about Celerra TimeFinder/FS Near Copy is correct?
A. Is a CLARiiON only solution
B. Is a Symmetrix only solution
C. Provides a pointer based view of the file system
D. Shares the same volume as the Production File System
Answer: B

3. What does the OSI Data Link layer provide?
A. a reliable message stream to the user interface
B. address and routing for data
C. data encapsulation
D. the media specification
Answer: C

4. What do VLANs reduce?
A. The amount of network traffic
B. The number of network segments in the network infrastructure
C. The router traffic overhead in the network infrastructure
D. The security in a network infrastructure
Answer: C

5. Which statement about Asynchronous transmissions is correct?
A. A frame clock timing signal is required for correct transmission
B. Multiple characters are transmitted at a time
C. Single characters are transmitted at a time
D. The sender and receiver must negotiate the transmission speed
Answer: C

6. Which statement about NDMP2D backup is correct?
A. Both Metadata and Data passes over the network infrastructure
B. Data passes over the network infrastructure
C. Metadata passes over the network infrastructure
D. No Metadata or Data passes over the network infrastructure
Answer: C

7. What business need does NAS address?
A. Application security
B. Firewall configuration
C. Heterogeneous client support
D. Print spooling
Answer: C

8. What does SSH use?
A. a clear text message transmit
B. a less secure communications connection than Telnet
C. TCP port 22
D. TCP port 23
Answer: C

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Technology Architect Solutions Design

• Exam Number/Code : e20-322
• Exam Name : Technology Architect Solutions Design
• Questions and Answers : 232 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC e20-322 Sample Questions

1. A customer has a SAN fabric consisting of several MDS-9509s for host to disk array connectivity.
They have purchased a Fibre Channel tape library and want to implement LAN-free backups. You have proposed making a tape VSAN on the existing MDS infrastructure and have recommended that they use QoS so that tape I/O does not use ISL bandwidth at the expense of disk I/O.
Which license is needed on the MDS directors?
A. Enterprise package
B. Fabric Manager Server
C. Storage Services Enabler package
D. Tape Write Acceleration package
Answer: A

2. A prospective customer has presented you with multiple applications. All applications have high write activity levels and unpredictable growth patterns. The applications are currently hosted on direct-attached storage in a RAID 1 configuration. They are concerned with making too many
changes at one time in their environment.
The prospect has asked you to justify your recommendation of RAID 1/0 on the CLARiiON configuration you are proposing. How do you respond to the request?
A. RAID 1 has a higher write penalty than RAID 1/0
B. RAID 1 is less flexible for growing LUNs than RAID 1/0
C. RAID 1 is unavailable in current CLARiiON configurations
D. RAID 1 LUNs are unable to utilize write cache
Answer: B

3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy.
C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Answer: D

4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Answer: D

5. A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices between 30 and 50 km away.
At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from 0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices.
What is the most cost-effective EMC solution?
A. 1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office.
2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers.
B. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices.
2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional offices using Open Replicator.
3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch offices using SAN Copy.
C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices using T1 network links.
Answer: D

6. You are designing an EMC ControlCenter solution for a new customer to reduce the overall storage and management costs. The customer would like management and reporting on a variety of hosts and storage systems. All managed objects are located in one data center.
Which factors must you consider when designing an EMC ControlCenter infrastructure?
A. Network firewall type, number of hosts, and total storage capacity
B. Network firewall type, number of IP switches, and number of Fibre Channel switches
C. Network latency, number of Exchange servers, and number of Oracle database
D. Network latency, number of hosts, and number of arrays
Answer: D

7. A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user. They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution.
The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type?
A. RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18
B. RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20
C. RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24
D. RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28
Answer: A

8. Using SAN Copy, a source Windows LUN of 100 GB has been copied to a 200 GB target LUN. After assigning the target LUN to the new host and running Disk Administrator to recognize the drive,what must be done to the Windows partition on the new host to see the LUN as 100 GB?
A. Nothing; the partition will be seen as 100 GB immediately
B. Run diskpart and set the partition size to 100 GB
C. Run the diskpar command and set the partition size to 100 GB
D. Run the format command and set the partition size to 100 GB
Answer: A

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Networked Storage–NAS Expert Exam for Technology Architects

• Exam Number/Code : E20-830
• Exam Name : Networked Storage–NAS Expert Exam for Technology Architects
• Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC E20-830 Sample Questions

1. A customer has an NS704G/DMX with production file systems mounted on server_2. The standy Data Mover is server_3, and server_4 and 5 are unused. There are currently 96 mirrored hyper volumes presented with BCVs. Currently 50% of Celerra volumes are in use. Which solution would best minimize the impact of backups on production data servers.
A. Configure NDMP 3 way backup with tape drives connected to an unused Data Mover
B. Take a TimeFinder/FS snap, mount it to an unused Data Mover, and backup the snap
C. Take a SnapSure checkpoint, mount it to an unused Data Mover, and backup the checkpoint
D. Use fs_copy incrementals to create a separate copy of the file system, mount the file system to an unused Data Mover, and back up the copy
Answer: B

2. A customer asks you to design an NDMP2D solution on an existing NAS device. Two shelves of disks remain unused, one is ATA RAID-5 and the other is Fibre Channel RAID-5. What is the EMC best practice for configuring cartridge filesystems?
A. Reconfigure both shelves to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge file system using LUNs from both of the disk shelves
B. Reconfigure the ATA shelf to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge filesystem using LUNs from each of the disk shelves
C. Reconfigure both shelves to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge filesystem using LUNs from only one of the disk shelves
D. Reconfigure the ATA shelf to RAID-3 and configure the cartridge filesystem using LUNs from only one of the disk shelves
Answer: D

3. You have a customer who is purchasing a new EMC NAS solution with the following requirements:
No DFS (Distributed File System)
Three 10 TB file shares
Which NAS platform do you propose?
A. NS502
B. NS602
C. NS704G
D. CNS-14 with five 514 Data Movers
Answer: C

4. A customer has a multi-protocol environment consisting of mostly Windows users with a few UNIX users. They want to perform Usermapping within Active Directory. What additional action must be taken after the customer extends the Active Directory Schema?
A. Modify param files
B. Update Windows registry
C. Run NTMigrate procedure
D. Import NIS database to Usermapper
Answer: A

5. An existing Celerra Customer utilizes its Data Movers with its UNIX NFS environment. It currently updates the password and group files nightly on the Data Movers. They would like to add a new group of Windows’ users to the Data Movers. Which architecture should be proposed?
A. Use the Usermapper for the Windows’ users
B. Use Usermapper with a VDM for the Windows’ users
C. Use the NTMigrate tools to create files and merge them into existing password and group files
D. Use Usermapper for the Windows users and groups, dump the database and merge the files nightly
Answer: C

6. You are planning for replication between two NS502G Celerras. One is located in New York, one is in Los Angeles. What must be considered for replication to be successfully established?
A. Time on both Celerras must be synchronized
B. Both sites must point to the same DNS servers
C. Each Control Station must be in the same domain
D. The rdf passphrase on each Celerra cannot be the same
Answer: A

7. You are designing the implementation of three new NS704G Celerras which will be used for CIFS only. All of the Celerras will be in the same Active Directory domain. Two Celerras will be used for production data and one Celerra will be used for development and testing. What is the EMC best practice for configuring Usermapper?
A. Configure each Celerra with its own Usermapper server on server_2
B. Enable Usermapper on server_2 of one Celerra and run a secondary User mapper on server_2 of the other two
C. Let the two production Celerras run Usermapper on server_2 in the default configuration and configure the development and testing Celerra with a secondary UserMapper service on server_2
D. Set up a default Usermapper server on server_2 of one production Celerra and a secondary Usermapper server server_2 of the other production Celerra, then set up another default Usermapper on the development and testing Celerra
Answer: B

8. What is one of the considerations for the configuration of the remote target site when designing a unidirectional SRDF solution for the highest level of availability?
A. The target site Celerra requires only RDF target Data Movers for the primary Data Movers on the source site
B. The target site Celerra requires only RDF target Data Movers for the standby Data Movers on the source site
C. The target site Celerra requires RDF target Data Movers for the primary and associated standby Data Movers on the source site
D. The target site Celerra Data Movers can each assume the identities of two source Data Movers and so only half the number of Data Movers are required in the target site
Answer: B

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CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects

• Exam Number/Code : e20-820
• Exam Name : CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
• Questions and Answers : 154 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC e20-820 Sample Questions

1. The ET Tool validates which component of a Business Continuance design?
A. Cache utilization
B. Data change activity
C. Link latency
D. SP utilization
Answer: B

2. You are designing a CLARiiON disaster recovery environment for your customer. You want to accurately model and calculate the following based on the customer’s input data and/or EMC Performance Data:
Bandwidth requirements (physical links)
Performance impacts at the logical volume level
Recovery point objectives
Which tool would best help you to accomplish this?
A. ET Tool
B. LOR Tool
C. Navisphere Analyzer
D. NSD
Answer: A

3. Which tool will allow you to best determine a Windows server’s performance?
A. diskpart
B. navseccli
C. perfmon
D. sar
Answer: C

4. There are several decisions that need to be made when designing a Business Continuity Solution. What is one of the decision requirements for a good solution?
A. All decisions should be calculated and derived from customer data
B. Create specific device lists for modeling tools
C. Industry standards and algorithms should be closely adhered to
D. Provide customer with a standardized approach to Business Continuity
Answer: A

5. Which tool will let you best determine disk utilization of a UNIX server?
A. diskpar
B. iostat
C. navcli
D. netstat
Answer: B

6. What are the requirements that must be met when collecting data that will be used as input for the ET Tool in an environment that is evaluating for MirrorView/A?
A. I/O to the LUNs should be stopped until the collecting of the data has started.
B. The update cycle must be an integer multiple of the collection interval.
C. The update cycle should be set for a 10-minute interval at maximum.
D. The update cycle should be set for a five-minute interval at maximum.
Answer: B

7. Which EMC products require a post-sales solution review by the EMC Solutions Validation Center (SVC)?
A. EDL Replication, Open Replicator, and EmailXtender
B. EDL Replication, SRDF/A, and RepliStor
C. SRDF/A, Open Migrator, and MirrorView/A
D. SRDF/A, RecoverPoint, and MirrorView/A
Answer: D

8. Your customer has come to you with concerns. They have increased their replication bandwidth from OC-3 to OC-12 and wonder what will happen to their recovery point objectives. What would your response be?
A. RPO will compensate and balance RTO
B. RPO will decrease
C. RPO will increase
D. Time objective will remain consistent
Answer: B

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Business Continuity Expert Exam for Technology Architects

• Exam Number/Code : E20-815
• Exam Name : Business Continuity Expert Exam for Technology Architects
• Questions and Answers : 143 Q&As

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PrepKing.com EMC E20-815 Sample Questions

1. Click the Exhibit button.
You are migrating a customer’s Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from DAS to SAN. The LUNs shown in the exhibit are presented to the server. You must select six LUNs to use for databases and logs.
According to EMC best practice, which Symmetrix DMX devices should you select?
A. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 055
B. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 05D
C. 005, 00D, 015, 02F, 055, and 05D
D. 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D
Answer: D

2. Click the Exhibit button.
You are migrating a customer’s Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from DAS to SAN. The LUNs shown in the exhibit are presented to the server. You must select six LUNs to use for databases and logs.
According to EMC best practice, which Symmetrix DMX devices should you select?
A. 00D, 005, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D
B. 005, 00D, 015, 01D, 02F, and 055
C. 005, 015, 01D, 02F, 055, and 05D
D. 015, 01D, 005, 02F, 055, and 05D
Answer: B

3. A customer is migrating from Microsoft Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2007. They want to provision each mailbox server with 2,000 users, allowing for 100 “heavy” profile users per Exchange storage group. In designing an SLA for the customer, you determine that the customer requires the use of recovery storage groups for disaster recovery purposes.
Which consideration must be made when architecting this solution?
A. A maximum of 50 production storage groups can be hosted per Exchange Server
B. A maximum of four production storage groups can be hosted per Exchange Server
C. Exchange 2007 Enterprise Edition is required
D. Server hosting the recovery storage group must be in a separate Active Directory forest from the source storage groups
Answer: C

4. A customer is migrating from Microsoft Exchange 2003 to Exchange 2007. The customer is trying to estimate the user load profile that fits their environment for the purposes of sizing the disk subsystem.
Which condition could cause the customer to underestimate the IOPS required for their environment?
A. Database maintenance
B. Deleted items retention
C. Mobile device users
D. Nested subfolders with many thousands of items
Answer: C

5. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is planning to consolidate 2,000 “Average” profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%.
Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected spindles needed to support the Exchange database?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: A

6. A customer is consolidating 2,000 seats from Lotus Notes to one Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. They want to provision each Exchange storage group allowing for 100 “Very Heavy” profile users. Mailbox quotas are set at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item recovery is set to the defaults and a full pass of database maintenance completes nightly. Content indexing is enabled and the customer has no need for offline maintenance.
What is the minimum LUN size that can be allocated for each Exchange Storage Group’s database, while meeting the customer’s needs?
A. 25 GB
B. 113 GB
C. 119 GB
D. 133 GB
Answer: C

7. A customer is consolidating 2,000 seats from Lotus Notes to one Microsoft Exchange 2007 server. They want to provision each Exchange storage group allowing for 100 “Heavy” profile users. Mailbox quotas are set at 500 MB per mailbox.
Deleted item recovery is set to the defaults and a full pass of database maintenance takes 48 hours to complete. Content indexing is enabled and the customer has no need for offline maintenance.
What is the minimum LUN size that can be allocated for each Exchange Storage Group’s database, while meeting the customer’s needs?
A. 25 GB
B. 95 GB
C. 100 GB
D. 125 GB
Answer: C

8. Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is planning to consolidate 2,000 “Average” profile Microsoft Exchange 2007 users from DAS to SAN using newly added 146 GB 15,000 rpm FC drives on their DMX-4. The exhibit shows perfmon data gathered from the database LUN of the mailbox server as it now performs. In addition, the exhibit reflects the level of concurrency in the environment. Anticipated growth is expected to be no greater than 20%.
Following EMC best practices guidelines, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected spindles needed to support the performance profile of the Exchange transaction logs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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