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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc EX0-106 Dumps

SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense

  • Exam Number/Code : EX0-106
  • Exam Name : SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense
  • Questions and Answers : 232 Q&As

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Exam : EXIN EX0-106
Title : SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense

1. You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

2. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

3. For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

4. The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 12.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
Answer: D

5. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

6. If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

7. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

8. There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A


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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc EX0-107 Dumps

SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security

  • Exam Number/Code : EX0-107
  • Exam Name : SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security
  • Questions and Answers : 233 Q&As

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Exam : Exin EX0-107
Title : SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security

1. What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

2. During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

3. You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network’s configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

4. In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

5. As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

6. During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: ABCD

7. You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

8. To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E


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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc EX0-105 Dumps

Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002

  • Exam Number/Code : EX0-105
  • Exam Name : Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002
  • Questions and Answers : 79 Q&As

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Exam : EXIN EX0-105
Title : Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002

1. You work in the office of a large company. You receive a call from a person claiming to be from the Helpdesk. He asks you for your password.
What kind of threat is this?
A. Natural threat
B. Organizational threat
C. Social Engineering
Answer: C

2. Why do organizations have an information security policy?
A. In order to demonstrate the operation of the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle within an organization.
B. In order to ensure that staff do not break any laws.
C. In order to give direction to how information security is set up within an organization.
D. In order to ensure that everyone knows who is responsible for carrying out the backup procedures.
Answer: C

3. What is the greatest risk for an organization if no information security policy has been defined?
A. If everyone works with the same account, it is impossible to find out who worked on what.
B. Information security activities are carried out by only a few people.
C. Too many measures are implemented.
D. It is not possible for an organization to implement information security in a consistent manner.
Answer: D

4. You are a consultant and are regularly hired by the Ministry of Defense to perform analyses. Since the assignments are irregular, you outsource the administration of your business to temporary workers. You don’t want the temporary workers to have access to your reports.
Which reliability aspect of the information in your reports must you protect?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
Answer: C

5. You are the owner of a growing company, SpeeDelivery, which provides courier services. You decide that it is time to draw up a risk analysis for your information system. This includes an inventory of the threats and risks.
What is the relation between a threat, risk and risk analysis?
A. A risk analysis identifies threats from the known risks.
B. A risk analysis is used to clarify which threats are relevant and what risks they involve.
C. A risk analysis is used to remove the risk of a threat.
D. Risk analyses help to find a balance between threats and risks.
Answer: B

6. When we are at our desk, we want the information system and the necessary information to be available. We want to be able to work with the computer and access the network and our files.
What is the correct definition of availability?
A. The degree to which the system capacity is enough to allow all users to work with it
B. The degree to which the continuity of an organization is guaranteed
C. The degree to which an information system is available for the users
D. The total amount of time that an information system is accessible to the users
Answer: C

7. Peter works at the company Midwest Insurance. His manager, Linda, asks him to send the terms and conditions for a life insurance policy to Rachel, a client.
Who determines the value of the information in the insurance terms and conditions document?
A. The recipient, Rachel
B. The person who drafted the insurance terms and conditions
C. The manager, Linda
D. The sender, Peter
Answer: A

8. We can acquire and supply information in various ways. The value of the information depends on whether it is reliable.
What are the reliability aspects of information?
A. Availability, Information Value and Confidentiality
B. Availability, Integrity and Confidentiality
C. Availability, Integrity and Completeness
D. Timeliness, Accuracy and Completeness
Answer: B


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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc ex0-103 Dumps

ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation

  • Exam Number/Code : ex0-103
  • Exam Name : ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation
  • Questions and Answers : 80 Q&As

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Exam : EXIN EX0-103
Title : ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation

1. Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. customer communication
B. employee motivation
C. social responsibility
D. standard products
Answer: A

2. Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?
A. Configuration Item (CI) type
B. Information security controls
C. Return to normal working
D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes
Answer: D

3. Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. all service changes
B. formal closure of services
C. staff recruitment
D. user training
Answer: A

4. Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. channeling data to Problem Management
B. ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. following up on Incidents
D. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B

5. Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. looking at Security Plans
B. looking at the cause of Incidents
C. looking at the Change Plan
D. looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B

6. What is the objective of a Management System?
A. to define, agree, record and manage levels of services
B. to ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. to ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed cost and services quality
D. to provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and implementation of all IT services
Answer: D

7. What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?
A. the determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of documented requirements
B. the evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the certification body
C. the notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication
D. the official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification
Answer: D

8. What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the customer organization.
Answer: B


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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc ex0-102 Dumps

Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF

  • Exam Number/Code : ex0-102
  • Exam Name : Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF
  • Questions and Answers : 80 Q&As

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Exam : EXIN EX0-102
Title : Microsoft Operations Framework,MOFF

1. In what way does Capacity Management contribute to improving IT Service Management?
A. By identifying the major technology components, infrastructure, people and processes that underpin the end-to-end delivery of service
B. By preventing interruptions to IT services as well as recovering services after an interruption occurs
C. By planning and monitoring the job scheduling process according to the requirements in the Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)
D. By planning the implementation of business requirements for IT Services so they are in place when the business needs them
Answer: D

2. Which Service Management Function deals with the day-to-day activities and tasks related to maintaining and adjusting the IT security infrastructure?
A. Availability Management
B. Security Administration
C. Security Management
D. System Administration
Answer: B

3. Which of the following is a key requirement for planning service solutions?
A. a managed IT environment
B. a milestone-driven implementation process
C. take the perspective of end-to-end services
D. understanding of the business and the operational requirements
Answer: D

4. Which of the following is a responsibility of the Operations Role Cluster?
A. detecting intrusions and protecting against viruses
B. managing business-to-business trading interfaces
C. managing IT-procurement and purchasing functions
D. prioritizing service improvement requests and identifying gaps for future functionality
Answer: B

5. Which of the following describes the concept of Service Management Functions (SMFs)?
A. a model for measuring the performance of the process
B. a model for organizing IT staff
C. organizational units that support IT operations
D. processes, procedures and policies to deliver and support IT service solutions
Answer: D

6. What is the relationship between releases and changes?
A. A change includes both changed hardware and software components and components that were not changed. A release only includes changed hardware and software components.
B. Changes are incorporated into the IT environment by releases.
C. Releases and changes are incorporated into the IT environment independently of each other.
D. Releases are incorporated into the IT environment by changes.
Answer: B

7. Which Service Management Function (SMF) needs to ensure that efficient incident detection and recovery tools and processes are in place to handle any service outages that do occur?
A. Availability Management
B. Release Management
C. Service Desk
D. System Administration
Answer: A

8. Which Role Cluster has a portfolio of business-aligned IT services as a quality goal?
A. Operations
B. Partner
C. Service
D. Support
Answer: C


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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc EX0-101 Dumps

ITIL Foundation v.3

  • Exam Number/Code : EX0-101
  • Exam Name : ITIL Foundation v.3
  • Questions and Answers : 159 Q&As

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Exam : EXIN EX0-101
Title : ITIL Foundation v.3 Certification

1. In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Capacity Plan
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
Answer: D

2. Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. To ensure that overall business risk of change is optimized
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
Answer: D

3. Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Transition
C. Service Operation
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: C

4. What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: D

5. Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary Knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

6. Reliability is a measure of:
A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that could impact a service or process
C. How long a service or component can perform its function without failing
D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working
Answer: C

7. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A. The RACI Model
B. A Release Package
C. A Request Model
D. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B

8. What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
A. Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities
D. Technology, process and service
Answer: D


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November 23 2009

EXIN,Inc EX0-100 Dumps

ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)

  • Exam Number/Code : EX0-100
  • Exam Name : ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)
  • Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As

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Exam : EXIN EX0-100
Title : ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)

1. Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

2. What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround?
A. a Request for Change
B. a resolved Problem
C. a Known Error
D. one or more resolved incidents
Answer: C

3. Which process includes developing a recovery plan?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Problem Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

4. How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management?
A. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not.
B. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause.
C. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause.
D. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not.
Answer: C

5. Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. which equipment is being used by whom
B. where the equipment has been set up
C. which software version is being used
D. which equipment is causing incidents
Answer: A

6. Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. ensuring the smooth running of the process
B. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
C. channeling data to Problem Management
D. following up on Incidents
Answer: A

7. Where can you find an overview of all IT services?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Catalog
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Window
Answer: B

8. Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL?process. This includes the objectives and the output. What else is required?
A. activities
B. authorisations
C. environment
D. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Answer: A


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