foundry networks certifed network professional
- Exam Number/Code : FN0-405
- Exam Name : foundry networks certifed network professional
- Questions and Answers : 96 Q&As
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PrepKing.com Foundry Network FN0-405 Sample Questions
A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2
Answer: AB
2. Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors?
A. route-reflector group
B. Community group
C. Confederation group
D. Peer group
Answer: D
3. Click the Exhibit button. Which port or ports in Figure 10 will be blocked?
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A. R&D ?e3
B. R&D ?e1
C. R&D ?20
D. HR ?e10
E. HR ?e11
F. HR ?e20
G. Distribution_2 ?e10
H. Distribution_2 ?e1
Answer: CH
4. Click the Exhibit button. Which bridge in Figure 10 will be a Non-Designated Bridge?
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A. R&D
B. HR
C. Distribution_1
D. Distribution_2
Answer: D
5. Click the Exhibit button. Which port or ports in Figure 11 will be
blocked?
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A. R&D ?e3
B. R&D ?e1
C. HR ?e10
D. HR ?e11
E. Distribution_2 ?e10
F. Distribution_2 ?e1
Answer: AD
6. Router pringfield?has three iBGP peers: Router omer? Router arge? and Router aggie? Routers Homer,
Marge, and Maggie are advertising the Router ?pringfield?has three iBGP peers: Router ?omer?
Router ?arge? and Router ?aggie? Routers Homer, Marge, and Maggie are advertising the same
destination networks. Router Homer announces routes with the default local preference. Router Marge
announces the same routes with a local preference of 200. Router Maggie announces the same routes with
a local preference of 1. Which path does Router Springfield take?
A. Router Homer
B. Router Maggie
C. Router Marge
D. not applicable, because local preference only applies to ebgp peers
E. not applicable, because local preference only applies to local router
Answer: C
7. A change in a route state, from up to down or down to up is called? A change in a route? state, from up to
down or down to up is called?
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A. route dampen
B. port flap
C. route flap
D. port dampen
Answer: C
8. What cli command shows the flap dampening statistics?
A. show ip bgp summary
B. show ip bgp neighbor <ip addr> flap-summary
C. show ip bgp neighbor <ip addr> flap-statistics
D. show ip bgp neighbor <ip addr> route-flap
Answer: C
9. What is the BGP4 state called when the router is waiting to start the BGP4 process?
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle
E. Confirm
F. Established
Answer: D
10. Click the Exhibit button. What does the ??in the status field of network 204.17.220.0/24 indicate?
A. This is the best route to use
B. This route is currently dampened and is unusable
C. Has a history of flapping and is unreachable now
D. Has a history of flapping but is currently usable
Answer: D
11. Which of the following are advantages of Peer Groups? Choose all that apply.
A. Allows resetting neighbor sessions on a Peer Group basis
B. Simplifies neighbor configuration
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C. Route updates from one EBGP neighbor in a peer group can be passed to other EBGP neighbors in the
same peer group
D. Conserves memory
Answer: ABD
12. What is the process of artificially lengthening the AS-Path called?
A. AS-Path pre-pending
B. AS-Path appending
C. AS-Path filtering
D. AS-Path extension
Answer: A
13. What parameter specifies the AS the remote neighbor is in?
A. prefix-list-as
B. remote-as
C. remote-neighbor-as
D. remote-route-as
Answer: B
14. Click the Exhibit button. Is the BGP session with Neighbor 161.69.18.1 an IBGP session or a EBGP
session?
A. EBGP session
B. IBGP session
Answer: B
15. Based on the following prefix list statement, which of the routes will be permitted and denied? ip
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prefix-list List_B permit 169.51.0.0/16 ge 20 1) 169.51.6.0/24 2) 169.51.128.0/18 3) 169.51.16.0/20 4)
169.51.64.0/19
A. 1=permitted, 2=permitted, 3=permitted, 4=denied
B. 1=denied, 2=permitted, 3=denied, 4=permitted
C. 1=permitted, 2=denied, 3=permitted, 4=denied
D. 1=permitted, 2=permitted, 3=denied, 4=denied
Answer: C
16. BGP routes only propagate between Autonomous Systems.
A. T
B. F
Answer: B
17. What will be the results of the following command? clear ip bgp neighbor 192.168.1.170 soft in
A. clear all routes on th 192.168.1.170 network
B. dynamically refresh from the 192.168.1.170 neighbor
C. clear all routes on the neighbor 192.168.1.170
D. reset the BGP4 session on neighbor 192.168.1.170
Answer: B
18. What are the three possible BGP failure states? Choose all that apply.
A. Admin
B. Connect
C. Active
D. Idle
E. Established
F. Open Sent
G. Open Confirm
Answer: BCD
19. What port does BGP communicates on?
A. 161
B. 110
C. 80
D. 179
Answer: D
20. What is the administrative distance for a onnected interface? What is the administrative distance for
a ?onnected interface?
A. 1
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B. 10
C. 15
D. 0
Answer: D
21. Click the Exhibit button. Is the BGP session with Neighbor 161.69.15.2 an IBGP session or a EBGP
session?
A. EBGP session
B. IBGP session
Answer: A
22. The MED attribute cannot be passed between autonomous systems.
A. T
B. F
Answer: B
23. BGP4 uses a specific packet type called a keepalive message to maintain a BGP4 session.
A. T
B. F
Answer: A
24. Which of the following Multihoming types has the highest CPU/Memory utilization?
A. Full routes from all ISPs
B. Default route (0.0.0.0) from all ISPs
C. Default route + direct customer routes from all ISP
D. Full routes from all ISPs IBGP
fnc4-7e foundry networks certified layer4-7 engineer
- Exam Number/Code : FN0-202
- Exam Name : fnc4-7e foundry networks certified layer4-7 engineer
- Questions and Answers : 270 Q&As
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PrepKing.com Foundry Network FN0-202 Sample Questions
1. Which of the following are valid source addresses the ServerIron can use to perform its health checks?
A. The ServerIron Management IP address
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B. The Real Server Ip address
C. Server Source IP defined on the ServerIron
D. The default gateway
Answer: AC
2. Which of the following best describes Direct Server Return (DSR)?
A. Client bypasses the SLB device and talks directly to the servers.
B. Client sends traffic to SLB device and SLB device responds with HTTP re-direct.
C. Server bypasses the SLB device and sends replies directly to the client.
D. Server replicates data onto other servers closer to the client.
Answer: C
3. Using show server real, if you see SUSPECT under an application port
A. There is no link to the server
B. The application might not be available
C. The time between packets has increased
D. The server is reachable at Layer 3 but the application failed Layer 4 or 7 health checks
Answer: C
4. Using show server real, if you see UNBND:
A. The application cannot be found
B. The application is bound to the VIP
C. The VIP is bound to the real server
D. The application needs to be bound to the real server
E. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server
Answer: C
5. 1. The Serveriron sends a TCP SYN packet to the server,
2. The SI waits one second and then checks for a SYN ACK reply from the server.
3. If the SYN ACK is received, then the ServerIron completes the test by sending TCP RESET to the server.
Describes what kind of Health Checks
A. Layer 4 UDP Three-way health check
B. Layer 3 TCP Three-way health check
C. Layer 4 TCP Three-way health check
D. Layer 3 UDP Three-way health check
Answer: C
6. To access a remote server, configure:
A. Server source-nat
B. Source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
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C. Server source-ip and source-nat in the same subnet as the ServerIron Management IP
D. Server source-ip for the remotes subnet
Answer: C
7. If the real servers are directly connected to the ServerIron, the ServerIron replaces the:
A. Source IP address with the real servers address
B. Destination IP address with the real servers address
C. Source address with the ServerIrons server source-ip address
D. Source and destination addresses with the ServerIrons server source-ip and the real servers IP
addresses.
Answer: B
8. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real
server?
Choices:
1)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP
b.Source translate the clients IP address
2)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP
b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
3)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged
b.Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address
4)Packets from the ServerIron to the real server
a.Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged
b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
9. What ServerIron functionality allows a client to connect to the same server to which it previously
established an SSL connection? (Select all that apply)
A. sticky
B. SSL session ID switching
C. cookie switching
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D. HTTP header hashing
Answer: AB
10. The Foundry ServerIron uses predictors to determine how to load balance the traffic flow. Which of the
following is not a valid predictor?
A. Least Connections
B. Round Robin
C. Least port priority
D. Response Time/Least Connections
Answer: C
11. What best describes the role that the Virtual IP (VIP) Address plays in SLB?
A. The Virtual IP maps multiple logical addresses to one physical port number,
B. The Virtual IP address maps one logical address to multiple physical servers
C. The Virtual IP responds to ARPs with the real servers IP address
D. The Virtual IP maps ARPs with the real servers IP cache table.
Answer: B
12. What is the well-known name for port 80?
A. HTTP
B. POP3
C. IMAP4
D. FTP
Answer: A
13. Performing Health Check on remote servers requires a source IP address that is not related to std NAT.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
14. Which Foundry SLB predictor uses a percentage distribution?
A. round robin
B. weighted
C. least connections
D. delay
Answer: B
15. What is the correct Foundry CLI command syntax for Layer 7 health check to a specific URL ?
A. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# port http url “GET/sales.html”
B. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# url “/sales.html
C. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# http url “PUT/sales.html
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D. ServerIron (config-hc-check1)# L7 healthcheck url “/sales.html”
Answer: A
16. What is the Foundry CLI command “ip tcp burst” used for?
A. Protect against TCP SYN attacks.
B. Enable tcp bursts
C. Flood TCP SYN
D. None of the above
Answer: A
17. What is the default settings for Layer 2 Health Checks on the ServerIron XL product family?
A. 4 sec
B. 20 sec
C. 2 sec
D. 40 sec
Answer: B
18. Using source-nat causes the ServerIron to replace the:
A. Destination address with the source address
B. Real servers source address with the server source-ip
C. Source address with the ServerIrons management address
D. Source and destination addresses with the server source-ip address and the real server.
Answer: D
19. What must an administrator configure to ensure that all requests for multiple ports from one client goes
to the same server?
A. The “Primary Port” application grouping parameter
B. The “Sticky connections” application grouping parameter
C. The “Concurrent Connections” application grouping parameter
D. The ” Master Port” application grouping parameter
Answer: C
20. Using Direct Server Return (DSR) allows the ServerIron to:
A. Double the number of sessions
B. Dynamically switch from server to server
C. Switch the connection back to a recovered server without dropping the connection
D. Establish a connection to the client establishing a connection to the server.
Answer: A
21. What functionality consists of directing HTTP requests to a server group based on information
embedded in a cookie in the HTTP header.
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A. switchback
B. SSL session ID switching
C. cookie switching
D. transparent cache switching
Answer: C
22. The reassign-threshold is used to:
A. Mark a server port failed
B. Mark a server failed
C. Reassign another server to the VIP
D. Reassign the port to another server
Answer: A
23. What is the default behavior when a client requests a TCP port that’s down?
A. The ServerIron sends a ICMP “Destination UnReachable to the client
B. The ServerIron ignores it and no messages are sent the to the client
C. The ServerIron increments the Reassign-Threshold
D. The ServerIron increments the Reassign-Threshold and removes the server from balancing
Answer: C
24. In fig. 1.1, rs3 is Testing because:
SW-ServerIron_A# show server bind
Virtual Server Name: vip1, IP: 169.144.10.100
http ——->
rs2: 10.10.10.202,http (Active)
rs1: 10.10.10.201,http (Active)
rs3: 192.168.5.10,http (remote) (Testing)
rs4: 123.3.3.3,http (remote) (Active)
Figure 1.1
A. The server cannot be found by the ServerIron
B. The application port cannot be found by the ServerIron
C. The server is reachable but the application failed the Layer 4 or 7 health check
D. The time gap increased between the last packet received and the last packet sent
Answer: C
25. The ServerIron sends a user configurable HTTP request to real servers to assess the health of the
servers. This describes what type of HealthCheck?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
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C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
Answer: D
26. What is a Layer3 Health Check?
A. It’s a session table entry for the application running.
B. It’s an ARP request sent by the ServerIron
C. It’s the third step in the Health Check process
D. It’s a ping sent by the ServerIron to the local or real servers
E. It’s a request made to a predefined TCP or UDP port
Answer: D
27. The ServerIron sends and responds to ARPs to the virtual IP address, not the actual IP addresses of
the real servers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
28. When using DSR, the ServerIron sends the packet to the real server:
A. With the real server’s MAC address
B. With the real server’s MAC address and IP address
C. With the real server’s IP address and the server source-ip
D. With the real server’s IP address and the clients IP address
Answer: A
29. Active Health Check can fall into two distinctive types. What are they?
A. Initialization
B. Internal
C. External
D. Periodic
Answer: AD
30. The show server real command will display the:
A. Packet count to and from the client
B. Packet count to and from the server
C. Packet count to the server, including the health check packets
D. Packet count from the server, including the health check packets
Answer: B
31. Configuring a remote server as primary will include it:
A. As the primary backup server
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B. As the primary remote backup server
C. In the VIP balancing with the local servers
D. As the server to access when all the locals have failed
Answer: C
32. On a ServerIron XL, what is the maximum number Source IP addresses supported?
A. 40
B. 64
C. 128
D. 32
Answer: B
33. What is the default Reassign Threshold?
A. 15
B. 21
C. 31
D. 24
Answer: B
34. ICMP echo messages are what type of health check?
A. Active
B. Internal
C. Passive
D. External
Answer: AC
35. The ServerIron sends TCP & UDP request to indivdual TCP & UDP ports to determine whether the
port is healthy. What layer health check is ths?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
Answer: C
36. In Hot-Standby Redundancy, keep alive queries are made between the Server-Irons using:
A. The sync-link
B. The layer 2 switch
C. The data link
D. The sync-link and data link
Answer: D
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37. Using DSR requires the real server to:
A. Have a loopback addresses
B. Have a loopback address in the same subnet as the VIP
C. Have a loopback addresses that is the same as the VIP
D. Have a loopback address that is the same as the server source-ip
Answer: C
38. What is it called when you are able to use multiple ServerIrons to simultaneously load balance VIP
traffic and provide hot standbys for one anothers VIPs?
A. Global Server Load Balancing
B. Symmetric Server Load Balancing
C. Server Load Balancing
D. Local Server Balancing
Answer: B
39. When configuring Hot Standby Redundancy, the configuration from one ServerIron can be copied to
another ServerIron exactly except for:
A. The MAC address
B. The sync-link address
C. The management address
D. The management address and the MAC address
Answer: C
40. When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
41. Server backup-preference 5 sets the ServerIron.
A. For 5 backup ServerIrons
B. To always have the same backup servers
C. As a required field for hot-standby redundancy
D. To prefer one ServerIron as the standby and the other as active
Answer: D
42. Is it possible for a Real-Server to have the Status of ENABLED but not be ACTIVE?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
43. Which best describes layer 4 switching?
fuc4-7p foundry networks certified layer4-7 professional
- Exam Number/Code : FN0-240
- Exam Name : fuc4-7p foundry networks certified layer4-7 professional
- Questions and Answers : 270 Q&As
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PrepKing.com Foundry Network FN0-240 Sample Questions
1. SYN-Guard and SYN-Defense can be configured on:
A. ServerIron XL
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B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: BCDEFG
2. The best practice method to configure SSL Layer7 switching is
A. URL switching
B. Cookie switching
C. Session ID switching
D. Round robin
Answer: C
3. sFlow is supported on the:
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: EFG
4. The maximum length of the URLcharacter is the same for the ServerIron XL and the ServerIron 400
product families?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
5. When using Layer 7 Switching, what command would you use to instruct the ServerIron to buffer all
request packets until all the necessary information is received insuring that the whole HTTP header will be
saved?
A. port http
B. port http buffer-for-end-http
C. port http wait-for-end-header
D. port http wait-for-end-http
Answer: D
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6. A UDP application is considered down if the server returns:
A. No packet
B. A garbage packet
C. An UDP probe packet
D. An ICMP unreachable packet
Answer: D
7. An active health check is done:
A. At each user request
B. According to the configured time values
C. When the Reassign-Threshold is exceeded
D. When there is a status change from the server
Answer: B
8. An HTTP health check can return:
A. A keepalive
B. Status code
C. Content verification
D. A value to increment the Reassign-Threshold
Answer: BC
9. Which of the following Health Check types are performed at Layer 7?
A. Arp Request
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. IMAP4
E. UDP
F. LDAP
G. MMS
H. RSTP
Answer: CDFG
10. How many simultaneous levels of health checks can be configured on the ServerIron to health check
the same real server
A. Layer 3, Layer4
B. Layer4, Layer7
C. Layer3, Layer4, Layer7, content match
D. Layer 4, Layer7, content match
Answer: B
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11. What will be the corresponding Virtual MAC Address belonging to a configured VIP 175.30.15.10
(AF:1E:0F:0A)
A. VMACs have to be manually configured
B. AF:1E:0F:0A:FF:FF
C. 02:0C:DB:1E:0F:0A
D. 02:0C:AF:1E:0F:0A
Answer: C
12. What must be done before a Health-Check Policy will take effect?
A. The Health-Check Policy must be bound to the VIP
B. The Health-Check Policy intervals and reset must be define
C. The Health-Check Policy must be attached to an application port on a real server
D. The Health-Check Policy must be configured to use 3-way handshaking
Answer: C
13. A Matching List can contain:
A. Log
B. URL
C. Down simple
D. Status codes
E. Up Compound
Answer: ACE
14. When health checking is enabled, a server response time consists of the combination of its response to
client requests and its response to Layer 4 or Layer 7 health checks from the ServerIron.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
15. When using a scripted health check, the default health check is disabled.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
16. A scripted health check can only contain searches for:
A. ASCII content
B. Status codes
C. Status codes and ASCII content
D. Status codes, ASCII content and keepalives
Answer: C
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17. Port profiles are used to define:
A. Port types
B. Status of ports
C. Well known ports
D. HTTP health checks
Answer: A
18. The Foundry ServerIron can perform Layer 7 health checks on the following TCP applications (select all
that applies)?
A. FTP (port 21)
B. POP3 (port 110)
C. LDAP (port 389)
D. SNMP
Answer: ABC
19. Health checks to port 443 can be:
A. Secure
B. Simple
C. Simple and Secure
D. Simple, Secure and Boolean
Answer: AB
20. A Port Profile is a set of attributes that defines a TCP/UDP port. Which of the following are valid Port
Profile Attributes?
A. l4-healthck
B. Keepalive interval and retries
C. TCP or UDP age
D. Keepalive state
Answer: BCD
21. disabling layer 4 health checks will automatically disable layer 7 health checks
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
22. Each Matching List must have a name
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
23. On the ServerIrons 400/800, the Health Checks are performed by what section of the hardware?
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A. The Management processor
B. The Barrel processors
C. The IPC processors
D. WSM processor
Answer: A
24. If a string that meets the selection criteria is a subset of another:
A. The longer string takes precedence
B. The shorter string takes precedence
C. The string that is read last takes precedence
D. The string that is read first takes precedence
Answer: A
25. What is the command syntax for setting up a layer 7 heathcheck for HTTP 1.1?
A. port http url “GET /www.abc.com HTTP1.1\r\n\r\n”
B. port url http “http 1.1/”
C. port http url “GET / HTTP/1.0\r\nHost: www.domain1.com\r\n\r\n”
D. port http url “GET / HTTP/1.0\r\
E. port http url “GET / HTTP/1.1\r\nHost: www.domain1.com\r\n\r\n”
Answer: E
26. For any application port, the “sticky” command is used to:
A. bind real servers
B. configure persistence
C. create sessions
D. cookie switching
Answer: B
27. How does the ServerIron measure response time in Direct Server Return configurations?
A. The ServerIron uses the reply traffic to measure the response time.
B. The ServerIron uses the Health Check and the reply traffic and applies the smooth factor to get the
average
C. The ServerIron uses the Server Response Time Weights parameter to measure response time.
D. The ServerIron uses the Health Check responses to measure response time.
Answer: D
28. The WSM6 module
A. Balances traffic to and from the management processor
B. Manages the SI850 and SI450
C. Has 6 management processors
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D. Can be configured as a WSM-100
Answer: B
29. What is the design advantage of using Symmetric Sever Load Balancing (SSLB) over Hot Standby
redundancy?
A. You can use Port Monitoring. It is not supported on the standby ServerIron
B. You are limited to only one pair of standby ServerIrons per broadcast domain.
C. You do not have to dedicate a ServerIron as a Standby.
D. You do not have to worry about STP interfering with Hot Standby communications
Answer: AC
30. How often does the Serveriron ARP for a real server after it is up by default?
A. It does not arp for the server once it is up.
B. Every 5 mins
C. Every 2 mins
D. Every 20 seconds
E. Every 2 seconds
Answer: D
31. With the proxy server cache load balancing featured configured, what is required to ensure clients
whose browsers with Proxy IP configured are served transparently?
A. The ServerIron performs tranparent TCS, using the normal hash mechanism to map the request
B. A VIP must be configured with the same IP address as the proxy
C. You must identify the ports as UDP so the appropriate health checks are used
D. Requires clients to reconfigure their web browsers to point to a proxy server
Answer: B
32. Setting the QOS policy to “CACHE” does what?
A. Disables Transparent Cache Switching (TCS)
B. Enables Transparent Cache Switching (TCS)
C. Sets the QoS cache for low priority traffic
D. Enabled Firewall Load Balancing
E. Disables Firewall Load Balancing
Answer: B
33. Which devices support ServerIron Link Balancer?
A. ServerIron XL
B. ServerIron 100
C. ServerIron 400
D. ServerIron 800
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E. ServerIron 450
F. ServerIron 850
G. ServerIron GT-E
Answer: A
34. The ServerIron in a non-routed environment always translates the MAC address in response from a real
server into the MAC address of the virtual IP address before sending the response to the client.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
35. Which of the following is an alternative to Hot Standby Redundancy?
A. Symmetric Server Load Balancing
B. Global Server Load Balancing
C. Server Load Balancing
D. System Server Load Balancing
Answer: A
36. What is the CLI command to display the synchronization settings for the Active Redundant and the
Standby Redundant Management Modules?
A. standby
B. sync-standby
C. sync-sync
D. standby – Sync
Answer: B
37. The output of the “show server real” displays information about the real servers. The “Ms” field contains
the value of the Master Port State, and only applies to track ports and to ports to which you have bound
other TCP/UDP ports.. The possible values are:
A. 3 -Test
B. 5 -Unbnd
C. 1-Enable
D. 3 -TestUp
E. 6-Active
F. 2 – Failed
Answer: ACEF
38. What is the number of sessions that a ServerIron with 32MB of memory installed can support?
A. 500.000
B. 160,000
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C. 1,000,000
D. 1,160,000
Answer: C
39. Below is the output from the “show server backup?command. What does it means when the “SLB
Partner MAC” value is all zeros?
Switch state = Active
SLB state =0
SLB partner MAC valid = 0
SLB Partner MAC = 0000.0000.0000
SLB Partner port cnt = 24
Transactions, activate s= 0,standby= 0
Pdus sent = 10,MAC pdu Sent= 10
No pdus = 0, no port maps= 0
ServerIron> show server backup
Server Backup port configured
A. Nothing, This is the normal behavior for the standby ServerIron.
B. It indicates that a layer 4 MAC synchronization is in progress.
C. It indicates that you have lost layer 2 connectivity with the partner ServerIron
D. It indicates that the Partner ServerIron is ready for Failover. (the Partner Mac is only displayed when
there is a failure).
Answer: C
40. In Fig. 1.0, what commands would have to be entered in order to enable the configuration of
VRRP-Extended?
Foundry Networks Certified Network Engineer (FNCNE)
- Exam Number/Code : FN0-125
- Exam Name : Foundry Networks Certified Network Engineer (FNCNE)
- Questions and Answers : 300 Q&As
Download Pass4sure FN0-125 Dumps from the link below
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PrepKing.com Foundry Network FN0-125 Sample Questions
1. On a ServerIron XL configured for firewall load balancing, the packet are load balanced using:
A. The firewall path
B. The session tables traded by the XLs
C. The MAC address set in the ServerIron
D. The hash value derived from the source and destination IP addresses
Answer: D
2. Firewalls can be assigned to which group?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B
3. The firewall path describes the path
A. To the next firewall
B. For the health check
C. To the firewall partners
D. To the ServerIron on the other side of the firewall
Answer: B
4. What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A
5. What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C
6. Which of the following ranges are defined as well-known port numbers?
A. 0-255
B. 1-256
C. 1-1023
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D. 1-2048
Answer: C
7. What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
D. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses UDP.
Answer: C
8. The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no backup designated router
(BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B
9. Switch sw-FWS2 (see diagram) is running 802.1w (RSTP), with default settings. It has a crossover cable
between ports e38 and e48. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports.
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A. e38: Root Port e48: Alternate Port
B. e38: Designated Port e48: Designated Port
C. e38: Alternate Port e48: Root Port
D. e38: Backup Port e48: Designated Port
E. e38: Designated Port e48: Backup Port.
Answer: E
10. In the diagram, ports e1 and e7 of sw-FWS1 have RSTP port titles assigned. Select the combination of
port titles that match the ports.
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A. e1: Root Port e7: Alternate Port
B. e1: Designated Port e7: Designated Port
C. e1: Alternate Port e7: Root Port
D. e1: Backup Port e7: Designated Port
E. e1: Designated Port e7: Backup Port.
Answer: B
11. After Bridge elections have finished, in which 802.1d state will a Non-designated port remain?
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Blocking
Answer: D
12. Which RMON group provides samplings of packet and error statistics captured at regular intervals?
A. events
B. alarms
C. statistics
D. history
Answer: D
13. Which of the following are true statements regarding a Topology Group? (Select all that applies)
A. It is used to add a tagged port to many VLANs with one configuration line.
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B. It uses a common STP instance across member VLANs that is controlled by a master VLAN.
C. All of the VLANs that are part of the group in a switch configured with this feature must have matching
tagged ports.
D. It can be the single configuration point for defining L2 paths in networks using STP, RSTP, MRP or VSRP
protocols.
Answer: BD
14. What routing algorithm is used by RIP?
A. distance vector
B. routing information
C. link state
D. dynamic routing
Answer: A
15. Of the following 802.1w (RSTP) port titles, which ones identify a port that is FORWARDING traffic?
(Select all that applies)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. Backup Port
E. Edge Port
Answer: ABE
16. Select all of the following statements that apply to a VLAN Group. (Select all that applies)
A. It is used to add a tagged port to many VLANs with one configuration line.
B. It uses a common STP instance across member VLANs that is controlled by a master VLAN.
C. All of the VLANs that are part of the group in a switch configured with this feature must have matching
tagged ports.
D. It can be the single configuration point for defining L2 paths in networks using STP, RSTP, MRP or VSRP
protocols.
Answer: AC
17. What is the valid extended ACL ID range?
A. 100-200
B. 100-199
C. 0-99
D. 1-99
Answer: B
18. Which routing solution prevents loop problems by sending a maximum hop count when a link goes
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down?
A. Split horizon
B. Poison reverse
C. STP
D. OSPF
Answer: B
19. Which 802.1d state will a switches Root Port and Designated Port enter after the 2 nd expiration of the
forwarding-delay timer.
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: C
20. What is the purpose of the STP listening state?
A. Listening to BPDUs to ensure there are no loops in the network.
B. Building a forwarding table.
C. Listening and learning Mac addresses.
D. Listening and building a filter table.
Answer: A
21. How is a root bridge selected in a network? (Select all that apply)
A. hop count
B. MAC address
C. priority
D. IP address
Answer: BC
22. In which 802.1d state does a switch send and receive BPDU for building a loop free STP tree topology?
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: B
23. What are OSPF routers that run multiple protocols and serve as gateway to routers outside an area and
those operating with different protocols?
A. area border router
B. autonomous system boundary router
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C. autonomous system
D. redistribution router
Answer: B
24. Of the following 802.1w (RSTP) port titles, which ones identify a port that is DISCARDING traffic?
(Select all that applies)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. Backup Port
E. Edge Port.
Answer: CD
25. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
A. 90
B. 1
C. 110
D. 255
Answer: C
26. Access list filters should be applied closest to the source node or network where you want to deny
access?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
27. It is possible to have more than one VIP assigned to an application port
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
28. Concurrent connections allow a client to always make:
A. Multiple connections to the same server
B. Multiple connections to the same ServerIron
C. Multiple connections to the same server’s application
D. An HTTP to one server and an FTP connection at the same time to another server
E. A connection to one server and allow the server to make a connection to another server
Answer: C
29. The ServerIron will always do a layer 7 health check when the bind is done.
A. True
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B. False
Answer: B
30. The management address is 169.100.10.10 and the servers are in subnet 10.0.0.0, what command
would have to be entered on the ServerIron for the health check to be successful?
A. Source-nat
B. Source-ip-nat
C. Server source-ip
D. Server source-nat
Answer: C
31. In fig. 1.1, client requests will be sent to the remote servers when:
SW-ServerIron_A# show server bind
Virtual Server Name: vip1, IP: 169.144.10.100
http ——->
rs2: 10.10.10.202,http (Active)
rs1: 10.10.10.201,http (Active)
rs3: 192.168.5.10,http (remote) (Testing)
rs4: 123.3.3.3, http (remote) (Active)
Figure 1.1
A. All local servers are unavailable
B. The ServerIron predictors choose the remote servers
C. The client is nearer to the remote server than the local server
D. GSLB metrics point to the remote server as being the best for client response
Answer: B
32. When defining the URL switching policy, a loop can be avoided by: (Select all that applies)
A. Defaulting to a group
B. Defaulting to a server
C. Configuring an ‘and’ policy
D. Defaulting to the first policy
Answer: AB
33. The ServerIron can do cookie hashing on: (Select all that applies)
A. The entire cookie
B. An offset of the cookie
C. A value of a cookie name
D. The cookie value set by the ServerIron
Answer: AC
Foundry Networks Certified Network Professional
- Exam Number/Code : FN0-103
- Exam Name : Foundry Networks Certified Network Professional
- Questions and Answers : 222 Q&As
Download Pass4sure FN0-103 Dumps from the link below
Download CertifyMe FN0-103 Dumps from the link below
Download Testking FN0-103 Dumps from the link below
PrepKing.com Foundry Network FN0-103 Sample Questions
1. Which RMON group provides samplings of packet and error statistics captured at regular intervals?
A. events
B. alarms
C. statistics
D. history
Answer: D
2. How does a switch communicate bridge IDs to neighboring switches?
A. RIP
B. ICMP
C. IP
D. BPDU
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is a link state routing protocol?
A. IPX
B. LAT
C. IGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: D
4. Which routing solution prevents loop problems by sending a maximum hop count when a link goes
down?
A. Split horizon
B. Poison reverse
C. STP
D. OSPF
Answer: B
5. What transport layer protocol provides a connection oriented service?
A. UDP
B. STP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: C
6. OSPF routers with membership in multiple areas are known as which of the following?
A. autonomous system boundary router
B. autonomous system
C. area border router
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D. link-state advertisement
Answer: C
7. Switch sw-FWS2 (see diagram) is running 802.1w (RSTP), with default settings. It has a crossover cable
between ports e38 and e48. Select the combination of port titles that match the ports.
A. e38: Root Port e48: Alternate Port
B. e38: Designated Port e48: Designated Port
C. e38: Alternate Port e48: Root Port
D. e38: Backup Port e48: Designated Port
E. e38: Designated Port e48: Backup Port.
Answer: E
8. BPDUs send configuration information messages using what type of frames?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. tcp
D. udp
Answer: B
9. What is the difference between TACACS+ and TACACS?
A. TACACS is an enhancement to TACACS+
B. TACACS is TCP based and TACACS+ is UDP based
C. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses TCP.
D. TACACS+ provides encryption and uses UDP.
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Answer: C
10. What is the standard IP multicast address for all routers?
A. 224.0.0.18
B. 224.0.0.1
C. 224.0.0.0
D. 224.0.0.2
Answer: D
11. Which of the following ranges are defined as well-known port numbers?
A. 0-255
B. 1-256
C. 1-1023
D. 1-2048
Answer: C
12. Which 802.1d state will a switches Root Port and Designated Port enter after the 2 nd expiration of the
forwarding-delay timer.
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: C
13. What are OSPF routers that run multiple protocols and serve as gateway to routers outside an area and
those operating with different protocols?
A. area border router
B. autonomous system boundary router
C. autonomous system
D. redistribution router
Answer: B
14. What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A
15. Access list filters should be applied closest to the source node or network where you want to deny
access?
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A
16. In this RIP network, the administrator wants to ensure that all traffic between server1 and server2 is
routed through router 1 and that router 1 is seen as the primary router. To ensure that this occurs, the
administrator should configure which of the following?
A. Assign higher hop counts to the router interfaces on router 1
B. Assign higher hop counts to the router interfaces on router 2
C. Assign a higher hop count between Server 1 and R1, and lower hop count between Server 2 and R1
D. Assign a lower hop count between Server 1 and R2, and a higher hop count between Server 2 and R2
Answer: B
17. Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval a bridge will wait for receipt of a hello packet before
initiating a topology change?
A. priority
B. forward delay
C. maximum age
D. hello time
Answer: C
18. What routing metric does RIP use to select the best path?
A. hop count
B. delay
C. TTL
D. bandwidth
Answer: A
19. The diagram shows an OSPF network with no designated router (DR) and no backup designated router
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(BDR). Which of the following statements identifiy which routers will be selected DR and BDR?
A. Router C is DR, Router B is BDR
B. Router B is DR, Router A is BDR
C. Router B is BDR, Router A is DR
D. Router A is DR, Router C is BDR
Answer: B
20. In which 802.1d state does a switch build its MAC tables?
A. Learning
B. Listening
C. Forwarding
D. Blocking
Answer: A
21. What transport layer protocol provides a connectionless service between hosts?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. ICMP
Answer: B
22. Ports e1 and e7 of sw-FWS2 (see diagram) have RSTP port titles assigned. Select the combination of
port titles that match the ports.
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A. e1: Root Port e7: Alternate Port
B. e1: Designated Port e7: Designated Port
C. e1: Alternate Port e7: Root Port
D. e1: Backup Port e7: Designated Port
E. e1: Designated Port e7: Backup Port.
Answer: A
23. Which of the following are true about OSPF stub routers? (Select all that apply)
A. Routers cannot send or receive External Link State Advertisements (LSAs)
B. Routers can send and receive External Link State Advertisements (LSAs)
C. Routers must use a default route to the area Area Border Router (ABR) or Autonomous System
Boundary Router (ASBR) to send traffic out of the area..
D. Routers memory resources could be exceeded by type 5 LSAs if they were members of a normal area.
Answer: ACD
24. Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval of time between each configuration BPDU sent by
the root bridge?
A. priority
B. maximum age
C. forward delay
D. hello time
Answer: D
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25. An End Station will be connected into port e20 of sw-FWS2, which is running RSTP (see diagram).
When port e20 is connected, we want it to immediately go to FORWARDING without any RSTP
convergence in the VLAN that it has membership. What is the RSTP configuration for this port?
A. e20 enable fast-port
B. e20 admin-designated-port
C. e20 edge-port
D. e20 admin-edge-port.
Answer: D
26. What is the valid extended ACL ID range?
A. 100-200
B. 100-199
C. 0-99
D. 1-99
Answer: B
27. What routing algorithm is used by RIP?
A. distance vector
B. routing information
C. link state
D. dynamic routing
Answer: A
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28. In the diagram, ports e1 and e7 of sw-FWS1 have RSTP port titles assigned. Select the combination of
port titles that match the ports.
A. e1: Root Port e7: Alternate Port
B. e1: Designated Port e7: Designated Port
C. e1: Alternate Port e7: Root Port
D. e1: Backup Port e7: Designated Port
E. e1: Designated Port e7: Backup Port.
Answer: B
29. Select all of the following statements that apply to a VLAN Group.
A. It is used to add a tagged port to many VLANs with one configuration line.
B. It uses a common STP instance across member VLANs that is controlled by a master VLAN.
C. All of the VLANs that are part of the group in a switch configured with this feature must have matching
tagged ports.
D. It can be the single configuration point for defining L2 paths in networks using STP, RSTP, MRP or VSRP
protocols.
Answer: AC
30. Which of the following statements is true about Foundry STP defaults?
A. disabled on switches
B. enabled on switches
C. disabled on routers
