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PrepKing.com Network General 1T6-215 Sample Questions
Exam : Network-General 1T6-215
Title : Sniffer Portable Switch Expert Analysis and Troubleshooting
1. Which protocol allows an administrator to add, delete, and rename VLANs for all switches?
A. ISL
B. CDP
C. VTP Transparent
D. VTP
Answer: D
2. Which device only works at Layer 3 of the OSI model?
A. Bridge
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Hub
Answer: B
3. If you discover that the Transport card is also acting as the Monitor card, it is most likely because: A. It has sent an SNMP request to the switch
B. TCP/IP is bound to it
C. The Sniffer Driver is bound to it
D. It has sent a GET request to the switch
Answer: C
4. Which device creates one collision domain and one broadcast domain?
A. Switch
B. Bridge
C. Hub
D. Router
Answer: C
5. Choose all that apply. Which device divides large, busy LANs into smaller LANs?
A. Routers
B. Hubs
C. Bridges
D. Switches
Answer: CD
6. Spanning Tree Protocol is up and running when all ports on a switch are in the following state:
A. Holding
B. Converging
C. Forwarding
D. Listening
Answer: C
7. Which multiport device allows the Sniffer to see all traffic going through it?
A. Switch
B. Router
C. Bridge
D. Hub
Answer: D
8. Hubs work at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 7
B. Layer 1
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 2
Answer: B
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PrepKing.com Network General 1T6-530 Sample Questions
1. This protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable end-to-end communication.
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C
2. The relationship of ports, addresses and sockets is best represented by which of the following
statements?
A. A socket is an alternative name for a port
B. A socket is a combination of port and IP address
C. A port is an application and IP address
D. A socket is a pair of IP addresses
Answer: B
3. The acronym RFC stands for _______.
A. Requested File Control
B. Requesting Further Clarification
C. Revised for Comments
D. Request for Comments
Answer: D
4. A message is associated with which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data Link
Answer: A
5. IP addresses consist of unique ______-bit address space.
A. 16
B. 32
C. 1514
D. 2048
Answer: B
6. The mask /26 will allow _______ hosts on a subnet.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 62
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D. 64
Answer: C
7. What is the Network part of a host that has an address of 10.27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A
8. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B
9. The Sniffer posts a Local Router condition when:
A. A host receives frames from a local router instead of a remote router
B. No routing is available on a subnet
C. A host sends its frames to a host instead of a router on a subnet
D. A host sends its frames to the router’s DLC instead of the DLC of a host on the same subnet
Answer: D
10. The mask 255.255.255.240 is equivalent to a mask length of_______.
A. 24 bits
B. 28 bits
C. 32 bits
D. None of the above
Answer: B
11. A logical AND operation of the address 1.2.3.4 with the mask 255.255.255.0 would result in the value:
A. 1.0.0.0
B. 1.2.3.255
C. 1.2.3.0
D. 255.255.255.4
Answer: C
12. The definition of a supernet is:
A. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple
network segments
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B. A block of separate network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network
segments
C. A block of separate network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network
segments
D. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network
segments
Answer: D
13. Which of the following is an address reserved by the InterNIC?
A. 126.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 128.0.0.1
D. All of the above
Answer: B
14. IP addresses consist of two parts. These parts are:
A. The local portion and the host portion
B. The local portion and the remote portion
C. The network portion and the host portion
D. The network portion and the remote portion
Answer: C
15. The addresses described by 200.1.32.0 /23 is:
A. A CIDR block
B. A Class C subnet
C. A Class B subnet
D. An aggregator
Answer: A
16. The address mask 255.255.224.0 equates to _______ in binary.
A. 11111111. 11111111. 11100000. 00000000
B. 00000000. 00000000. 00000000. 00000111
C. 11111111. 11111111. 11111111. 11100000
D. 00000000. 00000111. 11111111. 11111111
Answer: A
17. When viewing the layout of an IP packet, the first field is the:
A. Version
B. Destination address
C. Source address
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D. TTL
Answer: A
18. Proxy ARP is needed when:
A. A station that does not have a default gateway needs to communicate with a node across a router
B. A station that does not have a DNS server needs to communicate with a node across a router
C. A station that does not have a WINS server needs to communicate with a node across a router
D. A station that does not have a default gateway needs to communicate with a node on the same subnet
Answer: A
19. ARP lets a host learn the _______ address of another node.
A. DNS
B. MAC or DLC
C. IP
D. WINS
Answer: B
20. Which of the following ICMP messages is used to test for the existence of an address?
A. Redirect
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Echo Request/Reply
D. Source Quench
Answer: C
21. To aid a host that has sent an IP packet that has been directed in error to a router, ICMP will:
A. Tunnel IP inside ICMP to connect to the alternative router
B. Send an ICMP message to the sender containing the IP header of the original packet and a suggested
alternative route
C. Use ICMP to alter the routing tables
D. Decrement the TTL to zero and return an error
Answer: B
22. ICMP is a protocol that is used by network devices to:
A. Locate hosts on a subnet
B. Deliver IP troubleshooting data delivered back to the original sender
C. Restrict the Time-to-Live of a packet
D. Determine the best path across an internet
Answer: B
23. User Datagram Protocol may be described as:
A. A user authentication service
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B. A service that provides reliable and connectionless service using IP
C. A service that provides reliable and connection-oriented service using IP
D. A service that provides unreliable and connectionless service using IP
Answer: D
24. Choose all that apply. What does Transmission Control Protocol do?
A. Eliminates the need for a 3-way handshake
B. Multiplexes conversations and connections
C. Provides reliable segment delivery
D. It handles flow control
Answer: BCD
25. _______ occurs when a host delays the transmission of a full buffer of data until the rate of ACKs
returned is evaluated.
A. Delayed Duplicates
B. TCP Slow Start
C. Session Hijacking
D. SYN Flooding
Answer: B
26. _______ occurs when an attacker sends numerous session requests to a host, but never acknowledges
the reply.
A. Delayed Duplicates
B. TCP Slow Start
C. Session Hijacking
D. SYN Flooding
Answer: D
27. The _______ describes a station that has closed its window. This may or may not be a genuine
problem.
A. Window Frozen symptom
B. Silly Window Syndrome symptom
C. Zero Window symptom
D. Duplex Connection symptom
Answer: C
28. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Summary window.
What application is shown starting up?
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A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. DNS
Answer: C
29. While TCP uses ports, UDP:
A. Also has ports, but is not reliable
B. Also has ports, but is reliable
C. Uses process IDs and SAPS
D. None of the above
Answer: A
30. Virtual circuits are linked together via:
A. Client scope
B. IP address only
C. Well-known ports on the server
D. Client and server ports
Answer: D
31. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Decode window.
What TCP event is shown in the Decode window?
A. PSH Slow Start
B. Reset of connection
C. The TCP 3-way handshake
D. Graceful close of a TCP connection
Answer: C
32. In TCP, which flag indicates a connection is being requested?
A. FIN
B. ACK
C. SYN
D. PSH
Answer: C
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33. What allows multiple transmissions of segments without the need for an acknowledgement for every
segment?
A. PAR
B. Sliding Window
C. Frozen Window
D. SYN-ACK
Answer: B
34. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Summary window.
What application is shown starting up?
A. HTTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. DNS
Answer: A
35. TCP connection resets are invoked by:
A. Out of sequence numbers, or if the destination does not support the requested protocol
B. Graceful shut down of an application
C. Normal startup of an application
D. Data restarts
Answer: A
36. Which field in the TCP header is described as follows: the number of the first octet of data in the
segment being sent.
A. Source port
B. Destination port
C. SEQ number
D. ACK Number
Answer: C
37. If, during a 3-way handshake, a client sends a SEQ number of 100 to a server, the server will reply with
_______.
A. ACK = 100
B. SEQ = 100
C. ACK = 101
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D. SEQ = 200
Answer: C
38. X protocol is unique, in that:
A. The client is the display, and the server runs the application
B. There is no client or server defined in the architecture
C. The server is the display, and the client runs the application
D. Both the client and the server are clients
Answer: C
39. In Telnet, typical activity may be characterized by which of the following scenarios?
A. Files are transferred to or from the server
B. The clients issue requests and the server echoes back the request
C. Display windows are drawn and mouse coordinates are sent
D. Mail is transferred between clients and other mail servers
Answer: B
40. The functions of an X protocol client include:
A. Initiates and manages the X Window conversation
B. De-multiplexes client drawing requests
C. Multiplexes keyboard and mouse activity to clients
D. Answers requests and executes commands on the display screen
Answer: A
41. Under the rules of Telnet option negotiation, a host:
A. Can say no to a proposed option
B. Must accept the options proposed
C. Can begin data exchange even before negotiation is completed
D. Can renegotiate options already established
Answer: A
42. Telnet uses __________ to communicate.
A. SMTP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. X protocol
Answer: B
43. When troubleshooting interactive protocols at the application layer, most problems occur during:
A. Session initialization
B. Data transfer
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PrepKing.com Network General 1T6-521 Sample Questions
1. One component in an application turn is __________.
A. Server response time
B. Network process time
C. Application response time
D. Client acknowledgement time
Answer: A
2. When creating a filter in the Sniffer to select only the traffic to or from the client for a particular
conversation, the best approach is to focus on a __________.
A. TCP well known port number
B. TCP unknown port number
C. TCP ephemeral port number
D. TCP port number in the range 512-1024
Answer: C
3. When using Application Intelligence, Server Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: D
4. A large Window size used by a client could cause __________.
A. The server to consume more resources
B. Increased number of ACKs to be sent
C. Increased delay when frames are lost
D. None of the above
Answer: D
5. _______ is the amount of time, based on the engineering of the network, to complete a task.
A. Throughput
B. Delay
C. Access time
D. Latency
Answer: B
6. __________ is a protocol used to perform Control and Signaling functions in a VoIP conversation.
A. Session Initiation Protocol
B. Real-Time Streaming Protocol
C. Cisco Skinny Client Control Protocol
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D. All of the above
Answer: D
7. When reviewing trace data in a multi-tier application, application server requests can be associated with
database responses using __________.
A. TCP port numbers
B. Request ID
C. Raw data in the database response
D. Formatted data in the application response
Answer: A
8. An application that is sensitive to Jitter is primarily sensitive to __________.
A. Network congestion
B. Bandwidth latency
C. Distance latency
D. Application turns
Answer: A
9. What does a Window value of 8760 in a TCP header mean?
A. The sender is confirming the 8760 bytes have been sent
B. The sender has 8760 bytes in its buffer
C. The sender has received a total of 8760 bytes
D. The sender has buffer space for 8760 more bytes
Answer: D
10. The TCP 4-way handshake is used to __________.
A. Indicate the start of a flow of data
B. Identify the client request parameters
C. End a connection
D. Establish a connection
Answer: C
11. When using Application Intelligence, End-to-End Response Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: A
12. To accurately calculate __________ we must know the slowest link speed in the path between client
and server
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A. Distance latency
B. Congestion delay
C. Bandwidth latency
D. Round-trip time
Answer: C
13. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Summary window.
How many application turns are shown?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. Can not be determined based on the information shown
Answer: A
14. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Real-time Transport Protocol?
A. Used by several protocols to provide end-to-end transmission of real-time data
B. Uses a proxy agent for client-server communications
C. Operates as a client-server protocol
D. Keep-alive messages provide status information
Answer: A
15. When capturing data in a multi-tier environment, attach the Sniffer to the application server using
__________. (Choose all that apply)
A. A full duplex interface
B. A tap on the server connection
C. A mirror on the server switch port
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D. A mirror on the database switch port
E. Two Sniffer network analyzers
Answer: BC
16. The well-known port used by FTP servers to establish a Data connection is:
A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. Variable
Answer: C
17. The slowest component on a server will be _______.
A. Random Access Memory (RAM)
B. Disk I/O
C. Central Processing Unit (CPU)
D. The constraint (bottleneck)
Answer: D
18. When using Application Intelligence to isolate traffic distribution we should focus on __________.
A. Throughput
B. Number of packets
C. Total number of bytes
D. All of the above
Answer: D
19. Which of the following may contribute to poor application performance? (Choose all that apply)
A. Client processing of incoming requests
B. Server processing of incoming requests
C. Queuing of frames on an intermediate router
D. Efficient use of TCP/IP protocols
E. Inefficient configuration of TCP
Answer: BCE
20. The __________ type of application usually does not have any request/reply interactions after the initial
session is established.
A. Interactive
B. Throughput-oriented
C. Transaction-oriented
D. Streaming
Answer: D
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21. Distance latency can be improved by __________. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Relocating client computers to the same switch as the server
B. Relocating the server to the client location
C. Increasing the bandwidth on the slowest link
D. Reducing the amount of data transmitted across the network
E. Upgrading the interconnecting devices (routers and switches) between the client and the server
Answer: AB
22. In VoIP communications we can evaluate the Call Setup process through the analysis of __________.
A. Response codes and error messages
B. Network latency
C. Jitter
D. Packet loss
Answer: A
23. Application sensitivity refers to the performance impact incurred by an application measured by
_________.
A. Network delay and server delay
B. Bandwidth latency and congestion delay
C. Distance latency and number of application turns
D. All of the above
Answer: C
24. __________ refers to the communication phase used by an application to locate a remote device and
exchange session parameters.
A. Control and Signaling
B. Data Transfer
C. QoS
D. Session Management
Answer: A
25. We can calculate bandwidth latency for an entire file transfer if we know __________. (Choose all that
apply)
A. How many data bytes were transmitted
B. The total number of bits transmitted
C. The fastest link speed between the client and the server
D. The slowest link speed between the client and the server
E. The distance between the client and the server
Answer: BD
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26. The number of application turns involved in an FTP data transfer where the window size is 64240 and
the data transmitted is 642,400 bytes would be __________.
A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. .1
Answer: B
27. If our application is using TCP/IP over a fast Ethernet network, we can improve response time
performance by __________:
A. Increasing the TCP window size
B. Decreasing the TCP window size
C. Optimizing application efficiency
D. Reducing overall network congestion
Answer: D
28. __________ refers to the communication phase performed by the Real-Time Transport Protocol.
A. Control and Signaling
B. Data Transfer
C. QoS
D. Session Management
Answer: B
29. Typically, Transaction-oriented applications are primarily sensitive to __________ problems.
A. Network congestion
B. Bandwidth latency
C. Distance latency
D. Application turns
Answer: C
30. VoIP communications statistics displayed in the Sniffer Expert Session layer and based on __________
frames represent the perspective of the Sniffer.
A. Real-time Transport Protocol
B. Session Initiation Protocol
C. Cisco Skinny Client Control Protocol
D. Real-time Transport Control Protocol
Answer: A
31. When using Application Intelligence, Transaction Transfer Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
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B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: B
32. The bandwidth latency for a 1360 byte frame on a T1 link is _________.
A. About 7 microseconds
B. About 7 milliseconds
C. 0.012.509 seconds
D. Can not be calculated based on the information provided
Answer: B
33. The Sniffer reports application turns as __________ in the Expert Connection layer statistics.
A. Responses
B. Application turns
C. Transactions
D. Requests
Answer: D
34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Session Initiation Protocol?
A. Developed by the International Telecommunications Union
B. Uses a proxy agent for client-server communications
C. Operates as a peer-to-peer protocol
D. Keep-alive messages allow the Call Manager to know the status of all phones at all times
Answer: C
35. Which command is sent by the Session Initiation Protocol to begin communications with a destination
endpoint?
A. Locate
B. Invite
C. Request
D. Bye
Answer: B
36. In a multi-tier environment, which of the following steps can be used as synchronizing techniques?
(Choose all that apply)
A. Capture the front-end process and back-end process into a single trace file
B. Match data from the front-end to back-end process
C. Follow the port number through the application server and apply a display filter
D. Use IP IDs to match the front-end and back-end processes
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E. Filter on the front-end and back-end conversations as a final step
Answer: ABE
37. This image shows a typical network environment.
The network components marked with an A are commonly affected by __________. (Choose all that
apply)
A. Queuing delay
B. Distance latency
C. Bandwidth latency
D. Process delay
E. Routing latency
Answer: BC
38. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Expert Connection layer statistics.
From the statistics shown we can determine that __________.
A. The client was very busy
B. The server was very busy
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PrepKing.com Network General 1T6-520 Sample Questions
1. When optimizing application efficiency, an improvement in efficiency from the current 90% to an
efficiency of 95% or more should result in __________:
A. Significantly increased response time
B. Significantly decreased response time
C. Significantly increased network utilization
D. None of the above
Answer: D
2. We can calculate __________ for a file transfer by dividing file size by link speed.
A. Bandwidth latency
B. Application efficiency
C. Congestion delay
D. Throughput
Answer: A
3. To accurately calculate bandwidth latency we must know __________. (Choose all that apply)
A. The fastest link speed in the path between client and server
B. The slowest link speed in the path between client and server
C. The link speed between the client and the firewall
D. The distance between the client and the server (based on .66 the speed of light)
E. All of the above
Answer: B
4. Round-trip distance latency between Phoenix and Singapore (9,081 miles or 14,529 km) is __________.
A. About 165 milliseconds
B. About 270 milliseconds
C. About 500 milliseconds
D. About 1 second
Answer: A
5. If the predictive analysis results in response time that is slightly more than what users are experiencing,
what action should we take?
A. Review the parameters used in the predictive analysis, this should not happen
B. Analyze the network, it can not be the application
C. Analyze the network then the application, it may be either one
D. Nothing, this is normal
Answer: D
6. Distance latency can be improved by __________.
A. Relocating client computers to the same switch as the server
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B. Relocating the server to the client location
C. Increasing the bandwidth on the slowest link
D. Reducing the amount of data transmitted across the network
E. Upgrading the interconnecting devices (routers and switches) between the client and the server
Answer: AB
7. Output from the predictive analysis model should match data in the __________.
A. Sniffer Statistics tab
B. Application Profile
C. Ping command
D. All of the above
Answer: B
8. Predictive analysis describes the worst case performance of an application based on the design and
configuration of the network.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
9. 0.002.750.000, as a measure of time, can also be represented as __________.
A. 27 ?milliseconds
B. 2.75 microseconds
C. 2.75 milliseconds
D. 2.75 nanoseconds
Answer: C
10. If we do not know the speed of all of the links between the client and the server, we can __________ to
calculate bandwidth delay.
A. Use our network diagram
B. Estimate based on the 3-way handshake
C. Use the speed of the link nearest the server
D. Use the Line Speed displayed in the Sniffer
Answer: A
11. When conducting a predictive analysis, one of the input parameters to the model is the user task time in
seconds. If you do not know this value you can estimate how long the task took (round up to whole
seconds) to get a fairly accurate prediction for the task.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
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12. The Predictive Analysis Model requires __________ to be documented as part of the application profile.
A. Task duration and application turns
B. Application turns and Relative time
C. Cumulative bytes and number of tasks
D. File size and total time
Answer: A
13. The __________ type of application usually does not have any request/reply interactions after the
initial session is established.
A. Interactive
B. Throughput-oriented
C. Transaction-oriented
D. Streaming
Answer: D
14. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Expert Connection layer statistics.
From the statistics shown we can determine that __________.
A. The client was very busy
B. The server was very busy
C. Very little delay occurred in the transmission of the data
D. Retransmissions had a serious effect on the transmission of the data
Answer: B
15. When capturing data for the application profile, it is best to capture __________, when possible.
A. Just the traffic for this application
B. Only the traffic going to or from the server
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C. Only the traffic going to or from the client
D. All of the traffic on the network segment
Answer: D
16. This image shows one of the Sniffer Monitor applications.
The Sniffer application shown in the graphic can be very useful in analyzing __________.
A. Response timeA.Response timeA.Response time
B. Application efficiencyB.Application efficiencyB.Application efficiency
C. Name resolutionC.Name resolutionC.Name resolution
D. Traffic flow D.Traffic flow D.Traffic flow
Answer: D
17. Bandwidth latency can be calculated for an individual frame.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
18. To ensure that you have captured all of the task data, it is recommended that you use __________.
A. The largest capture buffer possible
B. A restrictive filter
C. Frame slicing
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D. The capture panel window
Answer: D
19. A bandwidth consumption graph can help us determine __________.
A. The total amount of data sent by the client
B. The total amount of data sent by the server
C. The total amount of bandwidth available to operate the application
D. The average amount of bandwidth available to operate the application
Answer: C
20. In a multi-tier application environment, the application server maintains the data store.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
21. A well documented application profile may be used to _________.
A. Identify constraints in the design of the network
B. Document how an application will perform on the network
C. Identify the constraints (bottlenecks) that will affect application performance
D. All of the above
Answer: D
22. An application profile should be created in collaboration with network technicians, application
programmers, and end users.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
23. An application profile process involves _________. (Choose all that apply)
A. Identification and documentation of specific user tasks that are commonly performed for an application
B. The correct placement of the Sniffer near connecting devices and then the capture of trace data for
individual tasks
C. An analysis of the collected data to identify bandwidth consumption and traffic flow
D. Documentation of total task time to create a baseline for troubleshooting
E. Graphs and reports that can be used to improve network performance
Answer: ABCD
24. The constraint (bottleneck) that impacts server performance could be_______. (Choose all that apply)
A. Random Access Memory (RAM)
B. Disk I/O
C. Central Processing Unit (CPU)
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D. Bandwidth latency
E. All of the above
Answer: ABC
25. The image below is a view of the Sniffer Summary window.
How many application turns are shown?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. Can not be determined based on the information shown
Answer: A
26. The number of application turns involved in a conversation where the window size is 64240 and the
data transmitted is 642,400 bytes would be __________.
A. 1
B. 10
C. 100
D. .1
Answer: B
27. The well-known port used by FTP servers to establish a Data connection is:
A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25
Answer: B
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28. Application protocols must be identified to the Sniffer by __________:
A. IP address and UDP port (socket)
B. Name and the appropriate listening port number
C. The UDP well-known port
D. IP address and TCP port (socket)
Answer: B
29. This image shows several frames displayed in the Decode Summary view that were captured on an
Ethernet segment.
The highlighted frame contains _______ bytes of protocol overhead.
A. 14
B. 18
C. 44
D. 54
Answer: C
30. _______ is the amount of time, based on the physical nature of the network, to complete a task.
A. Throughput
B. Delay
C. Access time
D. Latency
Answer: D
31. An application that is sensitive to network delay will be most impacted by __________: (Choose all
that apply)
A. 10% utilization on the network
B. 100% utilization on the network
C. Many large frames sent across the network
D. A user task with many requests
E. Many round-trips per transaction
Answer: BDE
32. The most likely place for congestion delay to occur within a large network is at the __________.
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(Choose all that apply)
A. Client
B. Server
C. Router
D. Load balancer
E. Firewall
Answer: CE
33. During the _________ testing phase we want to eliminate as much of the network delay as possible.
A. Pre-deployment
B. Post-deployment
C. Multi-tier
D. Load balanced
Answer: A
34. This image shows a typical network environment.
The network components marked with an “A” are commonly affected by __________. (Choose all that
apply)
A. Queuing delay
B. Distance latency
C. Bandwidth latency
D. Process delay
E. Routing latency
Answer: BC
35. During the Analyze and Report phase of the application profile, we need to identify the __________.
A. Type of application that is being used
B. Distance between client and server
C. Amount of data sent by the client
D. All of the above
Answer: A
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PrepKing.com Network General 1T6-511 Sample Questions
1. To save a trace file as a compressed file from the Sniffer you must use the extension:
A. CAP
B. zip
C. enc
D. caz
Answer: D
2. This is a screen from the Decode Summary window.
Which of the following statements is true for this capture?
A. 192.168.0.1 initiated a ping
B. 192.168.0.26 initiated a ping
C. 192.168.0.26 has a MAC address of 001111195130
D. 192.168.0.1 should not repeat the ICMP: Echo
Answer: A
3. This is the Detail window for this question.
Which of the following statements is true for this Decode Detail window?
A. One of the UDP ports should be ephemeral
B. UDP is the Station layer protocol
C. NETB is the Connection layer protocol
D. UDP is the Transport layer protocol
Answer: D
4. When troubleshooting a slow application, which of the following could be indicators of an
application-specific problem?
A. Commands with timely responses
B. Large or full-size frames
C. Long Delta times before each client request
D. None of the above
Answer: D
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5. This is the Decode Hex window for this question.
If you were going to create a Data Pattern filter on LOGIN it would be helpful to know that the letter is at
offset __________.
A. 38
B. 39
C. 3A
D. 3B
Answer: B
6. This is the network map.
If a Sniffer Network Analyzer captured a frame at point A going from User to a server somewhere on the
Internet, that frame would contain: (Choose all that apply.)
A. An IP destination address of 24.1.1.1
B. An IP destination address of the server
C. A DLC destination address of Cisco 36CD65
D. A DLC source address of Cisco 36CD65
E. An IP source address of 192.168.1.101
Answer: BDE
7. This is a screen from the Expert Objects detail.
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Which of the following statements are true for this Object detail screen? (Choose all that apply.)
A. This is the detail for a Duplicate IP Address alarm
B. This is the detail for a Local Routing alarm
C. KinetxA14015 is a robable Prouter
D. This is the detail for a Window Exceeded alarm
E. This is a connectionless Conversation
Answer: BE
8. The only frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell Law frame
B. Ethernet version two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B
9. Which of the following protocols are summarized when the Expert Overview pane and Station layer are
selected?
A. ARP, Ethernet, Cisco CDP
B. ICMP. IP, IPX
C. TCP, UDP
D. NetBIOS, SMB
Answer: B
10. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C
11. OSI layer 4 is concerned with __________.
A. ACKs and flow control working correctly
B. Routing or frame delivery
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C. Connections working correctly
D. Physical problems
Answer: A
12. The OSI Transport layer corresponds to the Expert __________ layer.
A. Data Link
B. Connection
C. Session
D. Network
Answer: B
13. Which of the following resources in the Sniffer is useful in identifying the endpoints in conversations in a
captured trace?
A. Expert DLC Layer Summary
B. Pattern Match filter
C. Matrix
D. All of the above
Answer: C
14. A sound troubleshooting methodology includes as part of the process a focus on finding imbalances or
errors.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
15. Which of the following is recommended as part of the troubleshooting methodology?
A. Use the Expert and Summary window first
B. Use the Detail window first
C. Use a top-down approach
D. Use the Hex window first
Answer: A
16. The interframe spacing in Fast Ethernet is __________.
A. 9.6 milliseconds
B. 96.0 nanoseconds
C. .96 microseconds
D. .96 milliseconds
Answer: C
17. This is the Summary window for this question.
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Which frames are part of the session close process in this example? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 34
B. 36
C. 38
D. 40
E. 41
Answer: ABDE
18. In the Sniffer Expert interface, the Service layer objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference
model?
A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
Answer: A
19. This is the Summary window for this question.
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Examine this capture closely. Which statement is true?
A. This appears to be a ormal Telnet session
B. Telnet is a session layer protocol
C. The delta times in frames 32, 45, and 50 would warrant investigation
D. None of the above
Answer: A
20. This is the Summary window for this question.
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Examine this capture closely. Expert display is disabled. Which statement is true?
A. Telnet is a session layer protocol
B. The user at 192.168.0.1 would complain of slow response
C. The delta times in frames 32, 45, and 50 would warrant investigation
D. None of the above
Answer: D
21. A Jabber is a physical error frame that has:
A. A length that is not a multiple of 8 bits, and therefore cannot be unambiguously resolved into bytes
B. Random or garbage data, typically caused by a hardware fault and is oversized with a CRC error
C. A legal frame size, but an invalid CRC
D. None of the above
Answer: B
22. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Presentation layer
D. Service layer
Answer: C
23. A Filter Profile in the Sniffer can be defined as:
A. A filter that can be used more than one time
B. A filter that can be shared with other devices
C. A pre-defined filter
D. Both A and B
Answer: D
24. A typical Diagnoses identified at the Global layer in the Sniffer Expert would be __________.
A. Non-responsive station
B. Local Routing
C. Broadcast/Multicast Storm
D. Zero Window
Answer: C
25. This is the Data Pattern filter for this question.
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Examine this filter closely. Which statement is true?
A. This filter will return all frames with 23 for a source port and 3043 for a source port
B. This filter will not display any frames
C. This filter will default and return all frames regardless of the port numbers
D. None of the above
Answer: B
26. When using a troubleshooting methodology and following a Bottom-up approach, which of the following
should be validated first?
A. Authentication
B. Addressing
C. Sessions
D. Application-specific operations
Answer: B
27. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and
displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is __________ bytes.
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
Answer: D
28. This is the network map for this question.
If User is complaining of a problem with an application login screen accepting data on Server, you would
want to initially capture traffic at points __________.
A. A, then B
B. C, then D
C. C, then B
D. B, then C
