Snia Storage Architect-Assessment,Planning&Design

• Exam Number/Code : s10-300
• Exam Name : Snia Storage Architect-Assessment,Planning&Design
• Questions and Answers : 100 Q&As

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PrepKing.com SNIA s10-300 Sample Questions

Exam : SNIA S10-300
Title : Snia storage
architect-assessment,planning&design

1. You have been tasked with identifying upgrade options for your networked storage. Which two should
you do? (Choose two.)
A. Only select hardware and software that is SMI-S compliant.
B. Share all received information openly with all vendors involved.
C. Understand needs and requirements as well capabilities of your existing technology.
D. Enlist legal advice or support of your purchasing department when creating RFI, RFP, and RFQs.
Answer: CD
2. What are three key advantages of deploying a director-based solution over a mesh of switches? (Choose
three.)
A. lower cost
B. consistent latency
C. improved availability
D. increased hop count
E. ease of management
Answer: BCE
3. What is the goal of a SAN designed with no single point of failure?
A. to provide redundant paths to data
B. to have a good data backup system
C. to minimize unexpected loss of data access
D. to have clustered servers so that one is always available
Answer: C
4. Your SAN currently has eight server ports and eight disk ports on one 16 port switch. Each server port
requires 80 MB/s of one-way bandwidth, spread out evenly among the storage devices. The customer
would like to add 28 server ports along with 28 disk ports. Each server will evenly distribute its traffic on
each disk. Using 16 port 1 Gb switches, which topology should you select to minimize the number of
switches and ISLs required?
A. star
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B. full mesh
C. core-edge
D. point-to-point
Answer: C
5. What is the primary objective of the storage capacity planning process?
A. To demonstrate the effects of changes in storage service levels.
B. To reach agreement with application representatives and management over the storage requirements.
C. To produce a capacity plan at agreed intervals which fits into the business planning cycle, e.g. the
financial year.
D. To calculate the effects on ILM service levels, array and fabric utilization of the estimated demand over
the period of the planning horizon.
Answer: C
6. When planning a NAS solution, which two sub-processes are associated with NAS Service Capacity
Management? (Choose two.)
A. Define future requirements.
B. Manage peak demand for NAS services.
C. Establish IOPS monitoring and exception thresholds.
D. Run reports on the storage and network utilization and IOPS of components.
Answer: BC
7. When implementing a high performance NAS solution you must check for which two items? (Choose
two.)
A. Ensure the network is full duplex.
B. Ensure that hosts have 100Mb NICs.
C. Ensure the network is at least 100Mb.
D. Ensure routers are configured for OSPF.
Answer: AC
8. A customer is using host based virtualization to mirror critical data between two vendors disk arrays.
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Which two scenarios are true? (Choose two)
A. The host can use the same HBA to connect to both arrays
B. The customer can adhere to either vendors SAN design rules
C. The customer must adhere to both vendors SAN design rules
D. The host must use different HBAs with different firmware to connect to each array
Answer: CD
9. A customer has a disk subsystem with eight ports. Each port delivers 200 MB/s. The customer wants a
solution designed which allows access from 32 servers with no single point of failure. Which number of
HBAs and the associated throughput, provide server access to the disk subsystem?
A. 16 HBAs, 75 MB/s
B. 32 HBAs, 90 MB/s
C. 64 HBAs, 25 MB/s
D. 64 HBAs, 50 MB/s
Answer: C
10. A customer has a terabyte database and is required to back up the data daily. The SLA has allotted 6
hours for completion of the backup from 7:00 P.M. until 1:00 A.M. However, the customer has a tape library
with only five SDLT tape devices running at native speeds of 40 GB/hour. Which two should you do to
successfully meet the expected SLA requirements? (Choose two.)
A. interleave data streams
B. enable server-based compression
C. use multiple data streams across multiple devices
D. prioritize the schedule to launch during periods of greatest inactivity
Answer: AC
11. What is the most important factor in determining sustained bandwidth in an IP SAN with high bandwidth
with long delays?
A. zero-copy TCP
B. IP fragmentation
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C. Ethernet MTU size
D. TCP sliding window size
Answer: D
12. An administrator has put the database recovery logs on the same volume group as the data files. The
administrator is going to restore the data files from a snapshot. What should be done first?
A. do nothing
B. restore the database to a different server
C. copy the production server recovery logs to a safe location
D. create a snapshot of the recovery logs and then restore the recovery logs after restoring the data files
Answer: C
13. A company has implemented a three-node cluster with SAN storage. Which LUN masking solution is
correct?
A. LUN mask volumes to all nodes
B. do not perform LUN masking in a cluster
C. LUN mask volumes to the appropriate cluster alias
D. LUN mask volumes to the active node, failover LUN masking when needed
Answer: A
14. Given point-to-point, bus, loop and Fabric topologies, which solution would be considered a mixed
topology approach using three separate but interconnected topologies?
A. a Fibre Channel-based storage network using Fabric switches with both loop attached and point-to-point
attached servers and storage
B. a cluster of servers connecting to Ethernet switches with a combination NAS Gateway Object storage
system for file sharing and block access
C. a mixed Serial ATA (SATA) and Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) solution using expanders where the SATA
disks and the SAS disks share connectivity to the expanders
D. an Ethernet-based iSCSI storage network using Ethernet hubs connected to Ethernet switches with the
storage devices directly attached to switches and the servers connected to hubs
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Answer: A
15. Some system servers contain valuable and frequently accessed data, manuals, and engineering
drawings. These files do not change very often, but they need to be kept on reasonably fast, reliable
storage to serve the needs of users. What would be an acceptable method of presenting these files for
use?
A. Install an Arbitrated Loop Storage system off of the primary server.
B. Install a High availability storage system connected directly to all servers.
C. Install a new Ethernet segment and connect a NAS storage system for all users.
D. Install a full blown Fibre Channel switched SAN with high availability storage system.
Answer: C
16. A company is designing a Disaster Recovery (DR) plan. They have an RPO of zero. The DR site is
located 250km from the production site. The DR plan must not affect application performance at the
production facility. Which scenario is appropriate?
A. a new DR site must be chosen
B. synchronously replicated the data to the DR site
C. asynchronously replicated the data to the DR site
D. create a split mirror snapshot and replicate the snapshot to the DR site
Answer: A
17. A four switch Fabric with 8 ports per switch using a full-mesh connectivity approach will have 20 ports
available for Fabric attached devices. How many ports will be available using the full mesh approach when
increasing the number of switches from four to six?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 20
D. 24
Answer: B
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18. You are assessing an infrastructure to consolidate multiple outdated servers into a single server. Your
first step is to determine if block level or file level access to the resource storage is needed. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If high throughput access is required, a NAS solution would be acceptable.
B. If block level access is required for the solution, a traditional NAS would be unacceptable.
C. If file level access is acceptable, a NAS should be used since it is generally more economical than SAN.
D. If Ethernet based backups are unacceptable, and backups are required, NAS would be unacceptable.
Answer: BC
19. An existing SAN has been experiencing numerous faults in the past few months, you have been tasked
with bringing the problems to solution and ensure reliability. Your primary concern is visibility into the SAN
and the present lack of monitoring. Which two are true about the existing infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Evaluating vendor supplied tools, and knowledge base type documents may outline best practices for
increasing reliability and reporting.
B. Requesting vendor assistance, and if need be custom builds of the firmware/software that runs your
array to fix the specific problems that you encounter.
C. Testing and then Level settings firmware and code levels to a common vendor supported standard will
allow you to avoid many of the problems that may have been encountered in the past.
D. Since SMI-S is an emerging standard, the likelihood of being able to manage equipment bought in
previous years is very low. A migration plan should be considered to an SMI-S compliant infrastructure.
Answer: AC
20. When designing a high availability solution that relies on SAN infrastructure, which three steps should
be taken? (Choose three.).
A. Ensure that single points of failure are eliminated where ever possible.
B. Practice manual fail-overs with all personnel that will manage the equipment.
C. Test the failover times during simulated load to ensure that the application will see no ill effects.
D. Joining both sides of the fabrics with an Inter-switch Link to achieve a higher level of redundancy.
E. Have good documentation and topology for all components with regards to the specifics of the
implementation.
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Answer: ACE
21. What information must be gathered during the testing phase BEFORE allowing live customer data on
the storage infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. time to failover, both without and with simulated load
B. single points of failure in the infrastructure as well as topology mapping
C. hardware and software vendor escalation process including phone-home and/or ticket generation
D. powerup order; how long from power application to functionality per component, including
dependencies.
Answer: AD
22. Your company is planning to implement a new service, and needs to deploy two servers in a
active/passive cluster maintaining a large repository of data. This data will include three sets of data: Set 1 :
Stream type data : 3MB Files on average : many thousands Set 2 : Large file data : 200KB Files on
average : many millions Set 3 : Small file data : 15KB Files on average : hundreds of millions The
application developer is writing code that is specific to an implementation of clustering that requires block
level access. Which solution does not degrade performance?
A. a RAID 5 grouping for set 3, while deploying set 1 and 2 on the same RAID 0+1 set
B. deploying set 1 and 2 as independent RAID 5 groupings, while deploying set 3 as a RAID 0+1 set
C. creating a single RAID 5 grouping on the array and using the OS to partition each of the three sets
D. creating a single RAID 5 grouping on the array and using the array to partition each of the three sets
from the same pack of physical hard drives
Answer: B
23. Which statement is correct?
A. Fan-in is the ratio of switch ports to host ports; and indication of switch load at a single host port.
B. Fan-in is the ratio of storage ports to host ports; an indication of storage load at a single host port.
C. Fan-in is the ratio of switch ports to storage ports; an indication of switch load at a single storage port.
D. Fan-in is the ratio of host ports to storage ports; an indication of host traffic load at a single storage port.
Answer: B
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24. A company needs to protect against data corruption using split mirror snapshots. Their RTO is 15
minutes and RPO is one hour. It takes 15 minutes to create an incremental split mirror snapshot. Which
scenario fulfills their needs most efficiently?
A. Use one snapshot volume and incrementally establish it every 60 minutes.
B. Use one snapshot volume and incrementally establish it every 30 minutes.
C. Use two snapshot volumes and incrementally establish one volume every hour.
D. Use two snapshot volumes and incrementally establish one volume every 30 minutes.
Answer: D
25. You are conducting an ILM assessment and just completed the gap analysis phase. What is your next
step?
A. plan storage strategy
B. develop detailed design
C. prepare actionable recommendations
D. perform storage consolidation and assignment
Answer: C
26. Your client is applying ILM principles as they develop a storage strategy. Which two processes are
performed in the strategy phase? (Choose two.)
A. set storage goals
B. develop an idealized environment
C. define internal storage parameters used in the implementation
D. match requirements to infrastructure capabilities and attributes
Answer: BD
27. A customer is configuring a host to have access to four virtual devices. The customer wants to create
a RAID 10 volume using these devices. The customer has two arrays and will be mirroring between arrays
and striping within arrays. The arrays are not zoned to see each other. Which two choices are valid?
(Choose two.)

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Snia Atorage Network Foundations Exam

• Exam Number/Code : s10-100
• Exam Name : Snia Atorage Network Foundations Exam
• Questions and Answers : 118 Q&As

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PrepKing.com SNIA s10-100 Sample Questions

Exam : SNIA S10-100
Title : Snia Atorage Network Foundations Exam

1. Which two sub-components are required in a specialized NAS operating system? (Choose two.)
A. file system
B. user interface
C. process scheduler
D. communication protocols
Answer: AD
2. Which virtualization technique requires the addition of an agent to each host for the purpose of managing
storage allocation?
A. host-based LVM
B. in-band appliance
C. out-of-band appliance
D. array-based LUN masking
Answer: C
3. Which architecture allows system-to-system communication and user level DMA with as little CPU
interaction as possible, most particularly for clustering?
A. FAIS
B. FC-VI
C. FC-CT
D. FC-SW
Answer: B
4. Which protocol is used for backups on an ethernet based network?
A. FCIP
B. NDMP
C. iDMP
D. iSNS
Answer: B
5. What are the SCSI addressing components handled by the SCSI protocol?
A. SCSI bus, logical unit
B. SCSI bus, target ID, logical unit
C. SCSI bus, target ID, adaptor number
D. SCSI bus, adaptor number, logical unit
Answer: B
6. What component is a configuration management element of an IP storage solution?
A. HBA
B. VSAN
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C. ISL
D. VLAN
Answer: D
7. Which SMI-S related acronym describes an object-oriented description of the entities and relationships in
a business management environment, divided into core and common models?
A. CIM
B. SRM
C. DRM
D. DMTF
Answer: A
8. Which three standards are the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force? (Choose three.)
A. IEEE
B. SNMP
C. NDMP
D. Policy for QoS
E. IP over Fibre Channel
Answer: BDE
9. What is the maximum potential bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 2 Gb SAN?
A. 100 MB/s
B. 200 MB/s
C. 300 MB/s
D. 400 MB/s
Answer: D
10. Which three are advantages of using a SAN in a campus environment? (Choose three)
A. Consolidate storage in a data center
B. Increase storage resource utilization
C. Decrease network traffic due to backups
D. Decrease network traffic due to storage decentralization
Answer: ABC
11. A company’s application and database will be rehosted and the underlying SCSI storage subsystem
replaced with an FC array. The new system’s O/S, volume manager, application and database are
incompatible, requiring many upgrades. Which action would you recommend?
A. Upgrade existing storage using host level migration
B. Create a snapshot replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test
C. Create a split mirror replica of the new storage, making it available to the new host for test
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D. Upgrade existing host to current volume manager, application and database levels and then migrate to
new host using NDMP.
Answer: A
12. What is a shared communication infrastructure device to which nodes on a multi-point bus or loop are
physically connected?
A. hub
B. switch
C. gateway
D. managed switch
Answer: A
13. What are two disadvantages of using a parallel interface? (Choose two.)
A. as the bus length increases, the chance of skew increases
B. as the bus speed increases, the chance of skew increases
C. as the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus length decreases
D. as the number of devices attached to the bus increases, bus queue depth increases
Answer: AB
14. What is the minimal iSCSI security level needed to protect against man-in-the-middle insertion,
modification or deletion?
A. none
B. encryption (IPsec)
C. Initiator and Target Authentication
D. digest for header and data integrity
Answer: D
15. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 4
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: BD
16. A small Internet startup company needs to implement a backup solution in their environment. Cost is a
large concern, and performance is not as critical since their environment mainly sits idle during off hours.
If a backup is not completed successfully, the customer has little concern and is able to run new backups at
any time. Which solution meets the customer’s requirements for providing a low-cost solution and satisfies
their current demand?
A. LAN-free backup
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B. server-free backup
C. over-the-network backup
D. SAN without LAN-free backup
Answer: C
17. What type of Fabric switch ports are joined to form an ISL?
A. F_Port to F_Port
B. N_Port to F_Port
C. E_Port to E_Port
D. NL_Port to E_Port
Answer: C
18. Which IP Storage protocol requires iSNS for discovery and management?
A. FCIP
B. SATA
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
Answer: C
19. A customer is implementing a disaster recovery plan to backup data to a remote location 200 kilometers
from their production facility. Which proposal should they use?
A. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
B. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using DWDM.
C. Synchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
D. Asynchronously replicate data between the two sites using a completely fibre solution.
Answer: B
20. Which characteristic differentiates an IP Storage adapter from a traditional Network Interface Card
(NIC)?
A. link aggregation
B. 2 Gb/s data rate
C. larger frame size
D. TCP/IP segmentation offload
Answer: D
21. What are two advantages of virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. improves data integrity
B. provides higher storage asset utilization
C. allows file sharing between dissimilar applications
D. increases the number of storage devices an operator can manage
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Answer: BD
22. What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. lower propagation delay
B. support up to 16 million devices
C. builds on SCSI and Ethernet technologies
D. takes advantage of existing knowledge base
Answer: CD
23. Which three options are benefits of using storage based replication? (Choose three.)
A. minimal or no host load
B. host platform independent
C. minimal client network load
D. storage platform independent
E. minimal storage network load
Answer: ABC
24. What is the SNIA Shared Storage Model?
A. description of storage components and their differences
B. framework that captures the functional layers and properties of a storage system
C. specification, a design, a product, a recommendation of a storage infrastructure
D. systems architecture that describes partitioning of physical elements and their complex interactions
Answer: B
25. Which Fibre Channel topology was initially introduced as a replacement for physical SCSI?
A. FC-AL
B. FDDI
C. point-to-point
D. switched Fabric
Answer: A
26. Which two performance criteria are used to determine the selection of a device for a tiered storage level?
(Choose two.)
A. user profile
B. age of data
C. speed (IOPs)
D. RAID and availability
Answer: CD
27. A clothing manufacturer is replicating its data asynchronously to a remote site. On the remote site , it
creates a snapshot of the mirrored volume to use as a disaster tolerant backup. Which choice contains the
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steps to create a consistent copy of the data?
A. simply create the snapshot
B. quiesce the application at the production site, create the snapshot
C. split the link between the production and mirrored volumes, create the snapshot
D. split the production and mirrored volumes, quiesce the application at the production site, create the
snapshot
Answer: B
28. Which term refers to the information that can be accessed on a disk drive by all the heads without
having to seek?
A. sector
B. cylinder
C. read cache
D. parity partition
Answer: B
29. A company needs to implement a high availability model for its mission critical data. Cost is important ,
but the solution must meet the following criteria: 1) Data can never be offline for more th an 10 minutes,
even after a failure 2) Databases must be on line during backups. 3) The company is using RAID 5 and
must guard against double disk failure Which option is the most cost effective strategy and fulfils the
constraints?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot and use as a hot backup.
B. Create a copy on write snapshot and use as a hot backup.
C. Create a split mirror snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape.
D. Create a copy on write snapshot and backup the snapshot to tape.
Answer: A
30. Which three may describe a NAS “head” or gateway? (Choose three.)
A. integrated disk storage
B. connection to an IP network
C. clustering and failover features
D. “file serving” to clients and servers
Answer: BCD
31. Which SMI-S interface role provides a common service for use by clients in locating services in the
management environment?
A. agent
B. provider
C. directory server
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D. management server
Answer: C
32. Which SMB security entity provides locking?
A. share ACL
B. NFS export
C. deny modes
D. CIFS authorization
Answer: C
33. Which three interface points test the interoperability of SMI-S? (Choose three.)
A. CIMOM to provider
B. client to CIM/WBEM
C. CIM/WBEM to CIMOM
D. CIM/WBEM to provider
Answer: ABC
34. Which type of storage management product would be used to perform LUN creation, mapping, and
configuration without advanced integration of heterogeneous storage platforms?
A. device manager
B. logical data manager
C. storage network manager
D. network management system
Answer: A
35. Which two recovery risks exist, given backup of a multi-protocol NAS device taken from a client system
through an active share? (Choose two.)
A. loss of SMB files
B. loss of NFS meta data
C. loss of CIFS meta data
D. loss of ACL information
Answer: BD
36. Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. LVM
B. switch zoning
C. SAN appliance
D. SMI-S monitoring tool
Answer: A
37. Where is the virtualization performed that masks physical data layout?
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A. network
B. FC switch
C. host/server
D. storage device
Answer: D
38. A stock trading application requires disaster tolerant storage for both transactional and analytical
processing. The implementation resulted in both a database and a data warehouse. Which two statements
are true in an SMI-S enabled environment? (Choose two.)
A. As initial storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is added dynamically.
B. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the
policy client.
C. The storage administrator creates a series of policies that specify remote and local replication at the
policy provider.
D. As local storage is extended to match capacity changes, remote storage is reconfigured within the
capabilities of the storage pool.
Answer: AB
39. Which storage management component typically contains proprietary interfaces and is vendor
supplied?
A. device manager
B. logical data manager
C. storage network manager
D. network management system
Answer: A
40. Which IP Storage solution supports remote mirroring of FC switch attached storage arrays in
geographically dispersed data centers?
A. iFCP
B. FCIP
C. iSNS
D. iSCSI
Answer: B
41. Which disk drive type relies on the host processor to perform all storage tasks?
A. SCSI
B. Parallel ATA
C. Fibre Channel
D. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI)

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SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam

• Exam Number/Code : S10-101
• Exam Name : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
• Questions and Answers : 154 Q&As

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PrepKing.com SNIA S10-101 Sample Questions

Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam

1. What is a characteristic of synchronous remote replication?
A. Source is minutes ahead of the remote replication.
B. Source buffers the data and sends it depending on a cycle time.
C. Source and remote replication always have identical data.
D. Synchronous replication only used for extended distances.
Answer: C
2. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C
3. You no longer have any port availability in the company’s switch fabric. There is a decommissioned
switch available. When it is installed, there is a segmentation error. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The wrong cable type was used to connect the switches.
B. The cable was connected into the wrong port on the target switch.
C. A duplicate zone name exists on the switch you are adding.
D. The domain priority is inconsistent.
Answer: C
4. From a business perspective a well managed archive is particularly important in which situation?
A. in the event of loss of power at the primary data center
B. when an administrator accidentally formats the wrong file system
C. in the event of litigation
D. when a user accidentally deletes an important email
Answer: C
5. What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. Uses existing Ethernet technologies.
B. Supports up to 126 devices.
C. Lowers propagation delay.
D. Leverages system administrator knowledge.
Answer: AD
6. What is the basic order of a snapshot creation process?
A. flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume, release the application
B. flush file system, quiesce the application, take snapshot, backup the volume
C. quiesce the application, flush file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
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D. flush file system, quiesce the application, flush the file system, take snapshot, backup the volume
Answer: C
7. What might be considered the most important criteria when designing an OLTP implementation for a
financial services customer?
A. data integrity
B. data redundancy
C. disk latency of less than 15ms
D. high availability
Answer: A
8. Which two RAID types use parity for data protection? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
E. RAID 10
Answer: CD
9. Which two have World Wide Names? (Choose two.)
A. switches
B. disk arrays
C. zone sets
D. servers
E. HBAs
Answer: AE
10. What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber with a 850nm shortwave laser at 1
Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
Answer: A
11. Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
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Answer: A
12. What is the function of the “head” on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Answer: A
13. Which tier provides highest availability and highest performance?
A. tier 4
B. tier 3
C. tier 2
D. tier 1
Answer: D
14. What is the maximum throughput of a 4 phy SAS wide port that has 3 Gbps links?
A. 300 MBps
B. 1200 MBps
C. 1800 MBps
D. 2400 MBps
Answer: D
15. What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A. DEC
B. AES
C. Turing
D. SSL
Answer: B
16. What describes RAID 0?
A. mirroring
B. parallel access with parity
C. striping
D. independent access with interleaved parity
Answer: C
17. Which two are common characteristics of DAS? (Choose two.)
A. direct access to data is available from single server
B. only available through SCSI/SAS interfaces
C. storage capacity is captive to a single server
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D. storage is accessible by any host anywhere on the network
E. attached to the host computer by a switch
Answer: AC
18. Which hardware component provides the interface between the storage network and the server
backplane?
A. gigabit link module
B. interposer card
C. inter-switch link
D. host bus adapter
Answer: D
19. What are two advantages of IP storage networking? (Choose two.)
A. greater security exposure
B. lower cost infrastructure
C. can use existing network management tools
D. lower CPU overhead
Answer: BC
20. Which is considered tier 2 storage in a datacenter with three (3) storage tiers?
A. tape vault
B. Fibre Channel disk array with dual controllers
C. Nearline storage
D. intelligent storage virtualization
Answer: C
21. What are two advantages of SAN when compared to NAS? (Choose two.)
A. No retraining is required to manage.
B. Servers and storage can scale independently.
C. Provides file and object level access.
D. Enables audit trails for change management.
E. Provides block level access.
Answer: BE
22. What are two protocol options for transporting Fibre Channel over an IP network? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP
B. FCAL
C. SES
D. iSNS
E. iFCP
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Answer: AE
23. What requires the user to correctly install electrical terminators on both ends of the bus?
A. Sbus
B. SCSI bus
C. PCI bus
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B
24. What happens when a SATA disk drive which has the ability to operate at 1.5 and 3.0 Gbps is plugged
into a SAS expander port with the ability to operate at 3.0 and 6.0 Gbps?
A. The SATA device will not operate.
B. The SATA drive will power down.
C. The SAS expander port shuts down and reports an error to the management application layer using the
SMP protocol.
D. The SAS expander port and SATA device will automatically perform speed negotiation and run at 3.0
Gbps.
Answer: D
25. Your existing tape infrastructure uses block level technology. You need to restore a set of files but not
the entire volume. How can this be accomplished without compromising the existing data on the server?
A. Backup the server; restore the original volume; then restore the recent backup.
B. Restore the tape over the existing volume. Only extra files that do not exist will be added.
C. Build out a new server that mimics the existing server and restore the files to that newly created server.
D. Restore to an alternate location such as a newly allocated drive. Copy the files you need onto the
volume.
Answer: D
26. Which RAID level is the most commonly used for file servers, application servers, Web servers,
databases, and other transaction-oriented applications?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
Answer: D
27. Which utility typically enables abstraction of storage within a server?
A. switch zoning
B. Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
C. SAN appliance
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D. SMI-S monitoring tool
Answer: B
28. Your current backup solution includes a backup server and six tape drives within a tape library. The
routers are connected to the SAN and the servers are zoned on the SAN to see the array. The server sends
a set of commands to the tape routers causing the routers to talk directly to the volumes and copy them to
the tape drives. Which backup infrastructure type would describe this process?
A. D2D (disk-to-disk)
B. 3PC (3rd party copy)
C. SSO (shared storage option)
D. D2R2T (disk-to-router-to-tape)
Answer: B
29. Which security method is used to insure that a particular host only has access to a particular LUN?
A. port binding
B. hard zoning
C. soft zoning
D. LUN masking
Answer: D
30. What is one advantage of hardware RAID controllers?
A. Volume management is performed by the host.
B. Volume management is performed by the switch.
C. Parity calculation by the server and cache memory on the RAID controller increases read and write
performance.
D. Dedicated cache memory increases server write performance.
Answer: D
31. Which connectivity types are associated with block level access?
A. DAS and SAN
B. NAS and SAN
C. LAN and SAN
D. NAS and DAS
Answer: A
32. Which host adapter configuration parameters is set to create redundant logical “paths” between the
server and the storage device?
A. LUN-pathing
B. Zone-pathing
C. Multipathing
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D. Cluster failover paths
Answer: C
33. Which subset of target devices allows for scalability beyond the 15 device limit in parallel SCSI?
A. target ports
B. I-T-L Nexus
C. logical units
D. Command Descriptor Blocks
Answer: C
34. A UNIX server has recently been unable to mount its file systems after the HBA driver has been
replaced and driver has been upgraded. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The switch zoning was based on port assignments.
B. The switch using worlwide naming has not been updated.
C. The disk array firmware was not updated.
D. The file system table was not updated to reflect the changes in device IDs.
Answer: B
35. You must implement a backup infrastructure for a remote office. This office has enough data to fill a
single tape each night. You can remotely schedule and control your backup server and run your backups
throughout the night. The staff at this site is not technical and will not touch the equipment. You only need to
store the last five days worth of data on these tapes. What solution minimizes purchase and administrative
costs?
A. Deploy a tape autoloader with enough tape slots to support a new tape for each night.
B. Deploy a set of five individual tape drives to the backup server each with a tape preloaded then rotate the
tape drive you use each night.
C. Deploy a tape library with multiple tape drives to ensure quick backup and enough tape slots to support a
new tape each night.
D. Deploy a single direct attached tape drive to the backup server and instruct onsite personnel how to
swap tapes to ensure a new blank tape is available each night.
Answer: A
36. Which statement describes a RAID array?
A. collection of disks in a single enclosure
B. collection of disks with a controller that provides mirroring functionality
C. a pair of controllers that provides cache, striping, and virtualization services
D. collection of Fibre Channel disks in a single enclosure
Answer: B
37. Which HBA configuration parameter represents the global value of outstanding commands?
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A. task-depth
B. queue-depth
C. target-queue-throttle
D. lpfc_lun_throttle
Answer: B
38. What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fibre with a 850nm shortwave laser at 2
Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
Answer: B
39. Which Fibre Channel protocol layer handles 8/10 bit encoding?
A. FC-0
B. FC-1
C. FC-2
D. FC-3
Answer: B
40. What describes RAID 3?
A. independent access with dedicated parity
B. parallel access with parity
C. independent access with interleaved parity
D. striping
Answer: B
41. Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) supports which two link speeds? (Choose two.)
A. 1.0625 Gbps
B. 1.5 Gbps
C. 2.125 Gbps
D. 3.0 Gbps
E. 4.25 Gbps
Answer: BD
42. Which activity is performed by a Storage Device Manager?
A. logical unit number (LUN) masking
B. volume group configuration
C. file system configuration

Download SNIA S10-101 Dumps

Snia Storage Network Management/Administration

• Exam Number/Code : s10-200
• Exam Name : Snia Storage Network Management/Administration
• Questions and Answers : 102 Q&As

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PrepKing.com SNIA s10-200 Sample Questions

Exam : SNIA S10-200
Title : Snia storage network management/administration

1. A SAN architect is asked to implement an infrastructure for a production and a test environment using
Fibre Channel devices. Additionally, the customer would like the Fibre Channel device for production
and the device for test to communicate over the IP network to remote hosts, but not to each other. Which
protocol should the architect implement?
A. FCIP
B. iFCP
C. iSCSI
D. SCSI-FCP
Answer: B
2. A four-way cluster is attached to two fabrics. Each member has two HBAs connected to each fabric. Each
fabric has two array connections. SCSI Queue Depth for HBAs = 8 and Storage devices = 256 per port.
Each cluster member is a primary for one application. All LUNs appear on all storage ports with workload
equally distributed across all. Each host has two dedicated HBAs for tape that can each see four
independent LTO II tape drives. All files are large and involve sequential I/O. Performance reporting shows
a large read pending at the host during multi-threaded backup. What is the maximum value you should set
for SCSI Queue Depth?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C
3. A customer has determined a primary and secondary threat radius. The primary threat radius is 100km
and the secondary threat radius is 500km. The company legally needs an exact copy of their data
replicated to a remote site. They also want a replica outside of the secondary threat radius. What should
they do?
A. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
B. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility 500 km away.
C. Asynchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and synchronously replicate their data to
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a second facility 500 km away.
D. Synchronously replicate their data to a facility a 100 km away and asynchronously replicate their data to
a second facility 500 km away.
Answer: D
4. You are troubleshooting a communication problem between a host and a storage array. Both nodes are
seen by the switch. The host can talk to the array port but has not assigned a target ID to it. What is the
most likely current scenario?
A. There have been no logins
B. Both nodes have completed Fabric Logins but no Port or Process Logins
C. Both nodes have completed Fabric and Port Logins but no Process Login
D. Both nodes have completed Fabric, Port, and Process Login, there is some other problem.
Answer: C
5. A customer is installing a Fibre Channel storage area network for a small test and development lab.
The lab contains two small Windows servers and a single ten disk storage subsystem. The customer
desires to deploy a fully redundant SAN for this environment with minimal cost. What is necessary to meet
the customer’s requirement for full redundancy of the SAN?
A. one director class fabric switch
B. two departmental fabric switches
C. Ethernet connectivity to each component in the SAN
D. at least one HBA in each server being attached to the SAN
Answer: B
6. Which SAN topology offers scalability with the lowest associated cost?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Cascade
D. Core-Edge
Answer: C
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7. A database is created in one volume group. The data files, meta data files, and journaling logs are all on
the same volume group. The database administrator (DBA) has created a remote replica of the volume
group over a 100km FCP link. The data base is recovered, tested and shutdown on a remote host. What
must the DBA do before restoring the database ?
A. Do nothing
B. Copy the original journaling logs to a safe location, so they can be used to recover the database.
C. Copy the original meta data files to a safe location, so they can be used to recover the database.
D. Copy the original journaling logs and meta data files to a safe location, so they can be used to recover
the database.
Answer: B
8. A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each fabric is contained
within a single switch. Each cluster member has access to 12 TBs of RAID 1 production storage and 12
TBs of RAID 0 local replica accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports to
one storage array. The tape fabric includes one (1) connection to each server and direct connections to
ten LTO II tape drives. The standby cluster member performs multi-threaded backups using the local replica.
All HBAs and ports are 200 MB. If the recovery time is equal to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. tape HBA
B. disk HBAs
C. tape drives
D. array contention
Answer: A
9. A server is experiencing performance problems. An application is being migrated to a new server. In a
controlled environment, how would you migrate the application with the least amount of downtime?
A. Shutdown the application, copy the data to the new server over the network, start the application on the
new server.
B. Shutdown the application, change zoning and LUN masking information, start the application on the new
server.
C. Create a local replica, change zoning and LUN masking information, stop the application, start the
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application on the new server.
D. Apply the zoning and LUN masking information for the new server, stop the application, start the
application on the new server, remove the zoning and LUN masking information on the old server.
Answer: D
10. A Solaris administrator responsible for backups is informed that the restore of data from the backup
appeared to be corrupt. The backups had appeared successful, but the database administrator claims the
data that was restored is invalid. Where can the administrator check to see if errors occurred during the
backup or recovery process?
A. /etc/syslog
B. event viewer
C. /var/adm/messages
D. /usr/sbin/errorlog.log
Answer: C
11. A customer with eight SAN attached hosts has a storage array with only ten disk drives. The customer
wishes to protect their data by using a RAID 1 protection scheme. Each server has a need to see three
separate volumes for their final configuration. What must be configured on the array to meet their storage
allocation needs?
A. multiple scsi targets to each mirror volume
B. separate logical units for each server volume
C. separate virtual paths for each mirror volume
D. multiple COW snapshots for each server volume
Answer: B
12. A customer wants to deploy a disaster recovery site 30 km away from the primary data center using a
Fibre Channel link. What is the key factor for maximizing performance of the link?
A. cable type
B. link control
C. adequate buffer credits
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D. Fibre Channel class of service
Answer: C
13. When adding a new Fibre Channel switch to a fabric, which step should you take, before connection, to
maintain security of the production network?
A. disable all ports
B. change default password
C. disable E_PORT functionality
D. upgrade firmware using an isolated fabric
Answer: B
14. Where would you find the N_Port in a fabric?
A. on an inter-switch link
B. on the Fibre Channel HBA
C. on the Fibre Channel switch
D. on the Fibre Channel loop device
Answer: B
15. What are two advantages of WWN (soft) zoning over port (hard) zoning? (Choose two.)
A. Switch ports can be grouped together to form a zone.
B. A device can be moved to another switch in the same Fabric without reconfiguring zoning.
C. A device can be moved to another port on a switch following switch port failure without reconfiguring
zoning.
D. A Fibre Channel tape drive can be replaced with another unit that has a different WWN without
reconfiguring zoning.
Answer: BC
16. Given the limitation of short wave fiber, which statement is true?
A. Short wave fiber can be used for MAN connections.
B. Short wave fiber can be used for WAN connections.
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C. Short wave fiber connections are good up to 10 km.
D. Short wave fiber connections are used for localized SANs.
Answer: D
17. You have an existing RAID system with 16 drives. The existing system was used to provide volumes to
six Windows systems on 2-gigabit links. You decide to add another 16 drive tray to double the number of
your raw hard drives in order to support five new UNIX servers. The average server throughput is 20
MB/sec. The RAID head is dual ported and configured active-passive. What may occur?
A. The zoning on the switch will control the traffic flow to the RAID.
B. The added demands on the RAID system will saturate the active RAID port.
C. The RAID system will notice the extra requests and go active-active to support the load.
D. The Windows systems will receive precedence as they were registered first on the RAID.
Answer: B
18. A fibre switch fails. A replacement switch has been delivered. Before plugging the replacement switch
into the SAN, which two actions should be taken? (Choose two.)
A. Delete fabric records of the old switch.
B. Add the new switch to the current zone configuration.
C. Clear all zoning information on the replacement switch.
D. Change the Domain ID of the replacement switch to the Domain ID of the old switch.
Answer: CD
19. When planning to deploy a Fibre Channel infrastructure where data rates are expected to exceed
25MB/sec what is the preferred medium for local cabling requirements up to 500 meters?
A. 9/125 single-mode optical cables
B. 50/125 multi-mode optical cables
C. 62.5/125 multi-mode optical cables
D. 62.5/125 multi-mode copper cables
Answer: B
20. What are two advantages of over-subscription? (Choose two.)
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A. saves on ISL links
B. decreases host I/O latency
C. increases individual host throughput
D. increases the number of hosts that can use the ISL
Answer: AD
21. Which process occurs during a fabric merge?
A. loop login communication
B. subordinate switch negotiation
C. fabric shortest path negotiation
D. iSNS name server communication
Answer: C
22. When planning for a global storage area network, which three should be taken into consideration?
(Choose three.)
A. network latency
B. distance latency
C. equipment latency
D. SCSI transmission latency
E. repeater amperage latency
Answer: ABC
23. A customer needs to implement two Fabric SANs with high-performance fault-tolerant disk access
located 1500 km from its data center. Which SAN component should an architect implement?
A. NAS filers
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Fibre Channel to iSCSI bridges
D. Fibre Channel WAN connectivity
Answer: D
24. A customer desires to implement several servers with the same operating system through a SAN to a
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storage array configured with a single LUN. What is required for all servers to have concurrent access to
the LUN?
A. NFS software
B. SAN/global file system
C. a switch with name zoning capabilities
D. removal of the switch and connecting the servers directly to the RAID
Answer: B
25. A customer in the medical services industry is having performance issues with the database that
maintains patient records. Recently the hospital expanded the SAN and added the fibre channel directors
in a core-edge topology which included moving the server from the core to the edge. After determining the
TCP/IP network is functioning correctly with no over-utilization of network resources, the system
administrator is attempting to determine what possible causes there are for the degradation. What is a
possible cause of the performance problem?
A. link over-subscription
B. spindle latency on the internal boot disks
C. contention between the FC packets and the SCSI-3 encoded TCP/IP packets on the FCIP link
D. over-subscription of the ISL’s between the edge Fibre Channel switches and the TCP/IP switches
Answer: A
26. Which HBA parameter can be configured using an HBA configuration tool?
A. zoning
B. RA_TOV
C. BC_TOV
D. register for state change
Answer: D
27. Infrastructure parameters include a small core edge design with all peripherals (disk and tape) located
in the core and all hosts connected to edge switches. Each host includes two HBAs, in fabric A and B
respectively, with all disks visible on both fabrics and tape devices divided between fabrics. The tape

Download SNIA s10-200 Dumps

SNIA Qualified Storage Sales Professional exam

• Exam Number/Code : S10-905
• Exam Name : SNIA Qualified Storage Sales Professional exam
• Questions and Answers : 40 Q&As

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SNIA Storage Networking Management & Administration

• Exam Number/Code : S10-201
• Exam Name : SNIA Storage Networking Management & Administration
• Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As

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