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PrepKing.com Symantec 250-308 Sample Questions
Exam : Symantec 250-308
Title : Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 for Exchange
1. A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.
Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B
2. What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD
3. What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B
4. What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?
A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.
B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.
C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.
D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.
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Answer: C
5. Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?
A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server
B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server
C. the Exchange System mailbox
D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox
Answer: D
6. A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a Business
folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories, respectively.
The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item remains as Personal
Expenses.
What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item
moves in to?
A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with
the new retention category.
B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category
updates
C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention
D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move
Answer: B
7. Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
Based on the information included in the Archive Properties window shown in the exhibit, why should an
administrator use the Rebuild Index Volume function?
A. A user’s permissions to this archive were recently changed and the administrator wants to update the
index entries with these new permissions.
B. The index volume has failed, which prevents accessing the archived items.
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C. A user that had previously delegated access to this archive no longer has this access and the index must
be updated to reflect this change.
D. The archive’s indexing level has been changed from Brief to Medium and the user wants to take
advantage of searching all archived items’ contents.
Answer: D
8. Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
If an organization uses a Mailbox Archiving Policy that uses the site schedule, how would the task run?
A. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run until it is complete or until 6 p.m. the next day.
B. It would archive 1000 items for each mailbox each hour starting at 6 p.m. until complete or until 6 a.m.
the next day.
C. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run every hour until 6 a.m. the next day.
D. It would start every day at 6 p.m., synchronize all mailboxes, and then run until it is complete or until 6
a.m. the next day.
Answer: D
9. The administrator of ACME has been given a small number of PST files that have been exported from
another Enterprise Vault (EV) system that needs to be accessible from the ACME EV system.
What is the recommended method of migrating the PST files into EV?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: C
10. After an email is archived for 90 days, a company decides to remove shortcuts from users’ mailboxes.
Archived email is retained for five years within the archive.
Which three methods provide access to archived email when the shortcut is removed? (Select three.)
A. Search Vaults
B. Outlook search
C. Google desktop
D. Browser search
E. Archive Explorer
Answer: ADE
11. A group of Enterprise Vault (EV) users can open archived shortcuts successfully. However, they are
unable to archive new items. Items selected to be stored within the vault quickly change from a pending
shortcut icon to a normal Outlook e-mail icon without an error.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ability to archive within EV has been disabled for these users.
B. The Archive Task that processes that user’s Exchange server is stopped.
C. The Vault Store where the user archives are located is in Backup mode.
D. The Storage service on the EV server is stopped.
Answer: C
12. An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator wants to allow users to delete from archives. After installing the
EV Outlook Add-In, the EV toolbar fails to display the ability to delete archived items. The desktop policy
specifically enables the Delete from Vault functionality on the toolbar.
Which two actions should the administrator perform to correct this issue? (Select two.)
A. add the line “AllowDelete=1″ to the WebApp.ini file located in the EV installation directory
B. uncheck “Prevent deletion of archived items in this category” from the retention category properties in
the Vault Administration Console
C. check “Users can delete items from their Archives” in the Site properties window in the Vault
Administration Console
D. restart the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to apply the changes in WebApp.ini
E. use the Mailbox Archiving Task to synchronize user mailboxes with the new policy settings
Answer: CE
13. Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A
14. What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC
15. What is a benefit of archiving mailboxes?
A. enhances PST functionality in users’ Outlook profiles
B. allows a central repository for users to access all corporate email
C. centralizes management of archived corporate email
D. removes the need for Exchange mailbox quotas
Answer: C
16. Which is a benefit of deploying Enterprise Vault?
A. It provides an alternative backup database.
B. It provides a way to help address corporate risk.
C. It provides a way to help address access control.
D. It provides an additional Exchange mail relay.
Answer: B
17. From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE
18. Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
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E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC
19. An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault
(EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default policy
for everyone else.
Answer: B
20. In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE
21. Enterprise Vault can archive eligible items in mailboxes based on which attributes?
A. mailbox size and state
B. item age and importance level
C. item age and mailbox size
D. mailbox state and utilization
Answer: D
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PrepKing.com Symantec 250-251 Sample Questions
Exam : Symantec 250-251
Title : Administration of HA Solutions for UNIX (VCS 5.0)
1. Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. Flags
B. RestartLimit
C. ToleranceLimit
D. OfflineTimeout
E. OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer: BC
2. Which feature of VCS can prevent overloading of a system’s resources in the event of service group
failover?
A. Parallel Service Groups
B. Capacities
C. Limits
D. Load Failover Policy
Answer: C
3. Which attribute enables VCS to bring a resource online after it goes offline unexpectedly and before
faulting the resource?
A. RestartLimit
B. OnlineRestartLimit
C. AutoRestartLimit
D. OnlineRetryLimit
Answer: A
4. Which VCS resource attribute setting prevents VCS from interpreting a Monitor entry point timeout as a
resource fault?
A. MonitorFault=0
B. MonitorFaultTimeout=240
C. FaultMonitor=240
D. FaultOnMonitor=4
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Answer: D
5. Under which condition can a service group be AutoDisabled?
A. when hashadow cannot restart HAD on a system
B. when the system is in a jeopardy membership
C. when a firm service group dependency exists between two service groups and the parent service group
fails
D. when a firm service group dependency exists between two service groups and the child service group
fails
Answer: A
6. Which attributes impact service group failover? (Choose three.)
A. FailOver
B. AutoFailOver
C. Faulted
D. FaultPropagation
E. Frozen
Answer: BDE
7. Which resource type attributes can be set in order to tune VCS failover characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. AutoStart
B. ConfInterval
C. ConfTimeout
D. MonitorInterval
E. OfflineMonitorInterval
Answer: BD
8. Which statement is true about the violation trigger?
A. A violation trigger must be written as a shell script.
B. A violation trigger and notification are mutually exclusive.
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C. A violation trigger is dependent on notification to work.
D. A violation trigger is automatically executed when events occur.
Answer: D
9. During a test of a NIC resource the VCS engine log indicates that the service group and the IP resource
enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the ONLINE state after the
root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to
start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C
10. Which types of monitoring can be performed on Oracle resources? (Choose two.)
A. detail monitoring
B. basic level monitoring
C. kernel level monitoring
D. specific monitoring
E. service monitoring
Answer: AB
11. VCS is to be installed in a secure environment where remote installation between systems is impossible.
The VCS configuration parameters were captured in a file using the installation script on the first system.
What can be used to read the contents of the configuration file when executing locally on the remaining
systems?
A. -autoconfig
B. -configfile
C. -vcsconfig
D. -responsefile
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Answer: D
12. Which text files are created at the end of a successful run of installvcs -installonly? (Choose three.)
A. log
B. response
C. gabtab
D. llttab
E. summary
Answer: ABE
13. Which components are installed when you execute the installvcs script? (Choose two.)
A. bundled agents
B. database agents
C. cluster file system
D. GAB driver
E. cluster volume manager
Answer: AD
14. Which conditions are recommended for a successful VCS patch installation? (Choose two.)
A. The clustered application must be shut down.
B. VCS must be shut down only on the server being patched.
C. VCS must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
D. GAB and LLT must be shut down on all cluster nodes.
E. GAB and LLT must remain running and connected.
Answer: CD
15. Which directive in the llttab file defines a network interface for a heartbeat?
A. nic
B. link
C. heartbeat
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D. hbdev
Answer: B
16. You are adding a system to a running cluster. You have successfully performed these steps on the
system that you are adding:
1. installed, configured, and tested all application resources required
2. installed VCS
3. configured and started VCS communications (LLT and GAB)
What is the next step that you perform?
A. update the resource attributes to enable resources to run on the new system
B. update the service group attributes to enable groups to run on the new system
C. change the cluster attribute for VCS user names to match accounts on the new system
D. change the owner of the system attributes so that all cluster systems are the same
Answer: B
17. Which procedure must be followed to remove the resource type TypeA from an active VCS cluster?
A. remove all resources of TypeA, remove TypeA, and remove TypeA packages
B. remove TypeA, then execute the hatype esync command
C. stop VCS, remove all resources of TypeA, and start VCS
D. execute the hatype -remove command which will remove all the resources
Answer: A
18. What is the default level of authorization of a new VCS user?
A. Cluster Administrator
B. Cluster Operator
C. Cluster Guest
D. Group Administrator
E. Group Operator
Answer: C
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19. When preparing to install VCS on the S1 and S2 systems, what should you do to verify software
compatibility? (Choose three.)
A. check the VCS release notes for supported software
B. run the installvcs recheck S1 S2 command
C. let the installvcs script check compatibility at install
D. run the installvcs ompat S1 S2 command
E. check the Symantec Enterprise Support website
Answer: ABE
20. You are installing a VCS upgrade that does not require a system reboot, but does require a VCS restart.
Which method maximizes user access to the clustered applications during the upgrade?
A. use the VCS rolling upgrade option which restarts VCS transparently
B. stop VCS using the orce option and then restart VCS on each system
C. evacuate service groups while upgrading one system at a time
D. stop VCS using the all option and then restart VCS on each system
Answer: B
21. What can a system administrator do to ensure that Veritas Volume Manager volumes are started by the
Volume resource rather than the DiskGroup resource?
A. make sure that all VCS volumes are present in /etc/vfstab
B. change the service group so that it excludes the DiskGroup resource
C. create a dependency from the DiskGroup resource to the Volume resource
D. change the default value of the StartVolumes attribute of the DiskGroup agent
Answer: D
22. What should you do when modifying a resource attribute in an online service group?
A. freeze the resource
B. disable the resource
C. disable the service group
D. take the service group offline
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Answer: B
23. You need to remove a service group named GroupA. You have already removed all resources from the
group.
Which command do you use to remove the group?
A. hagrp emove GroupA
B. hagrp elete GroupA
C. hagrp emove group GroupA
D. hagrp elete group GroupA
Answer: B
24. Which command retrieves and archives detailed information about the VCS configuration?
A. hasavecf
B. hasnap
C. hasave
D. haconfig
Answer: B
25. A resource named resA is added to a running service group.
Which command can be used to manually monitor the new resource?
A. hares robe resA ys SystemA
B. hares orce resA ys SystemA
C. hares onitor resA ys SystemA
D. hares efreshinfo resA ys SystemA
Answer: A
26. The log files used to verify that a custom application is being properly monitored are located in which
directory?
A. /var/VRTSvcs/log/
B. /var/VRTSvcs/log/GroupA/
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C. /var/VRTSvcs/agent/log/
D. /var/opt/VRTSvcs/log/agent/
Answer: A
27. The hastatus command shows the systems are in STALE_ADMIN_WAIT. What causes this?
A. The configuration was not closed before restarting HAD.
B. There is a syntax error in the main.cf configuration file.
C. There is a main.stale file in the configuration directory.
D. The main.cf is different on the systems in the cluster.
Answer: B
28. What is a required attribute of a service group?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoStartList
C. SystemList
D. SystemStartList
Answer: C
29. How many systems in the cluster can the NotifierMngr run on at one time?
A. 1
B. 32
C. 256
D. an unlimited number
Answer: A
30. Given default settings for an online service group and its resources, which statements are true if the
resources are all set to non-critical? (Choose two.)
A. A resource fault leads to a faulted state for the resource.
B. A resource fault leads to the service group failing over.
C. A resource fault will lead to the service group being taken offline.
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PrepKing.com Symantec 251-351 Sample Questions
Exam : Symantec 251-351
Title : Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows
1. What are two valid settings for FailOverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. Capacity
Answer: AB
2. During a test of a persistent resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service
group and the persistent resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The resource
enters the ONLINE state after the root cause of the fault is corrected. Which default attribute setting allows
the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C
3. You are using the Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) Java console to connect to a VCS Simulator session that
is running within a production VCS cluster. The Java console is unable to connect to the VCS Simulator
session. What are two possible causes for the connection problem? (Choose two.)
A. HAD for the production VCS cluster is not running.
B. The VCS Simulator is not running.
C. The port number is incorrect.
D. The hashadow process for the VCS cluster is hung.
E. The ClusterService group is offline.
Answer: BC
4. A PostOnline trigger is being tested on a three-system cluster with systems named SystemA, SystemB,
and SystemC. The trigger works on SystemA, but it fails to run on SystemB and SystemC. What is a
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possible reason for this?
A. The PostOnline trigger is missing from SystemB and SystemC.
B. The hatrigger script must be run on all systems to enable the PostOnline trigger.
C. The PostOnline attribute is set to False on SystemB and SystemC.
D. The Veritas Cluster Server engine had an error while replicating the trigger to SystemB and SystemC.
Answer: A
5. What is the correct configuration of Exchange to enable failover in a cluster?
A. Active/Passive with four systems and two Exchange instances
B. Active/Active with four systems and five Exchange instances
C. Active/Active with four systems each running multiple Exchange instances
D. Active/Passive with four systems and four Exchange instances
Answer: A
6. Refer to the exhibit.
A new VMDg resource is manually added to an existing service group, but the VMDg resource fails to probe
and shows a red question mark on the Veritas Cluster Server Java console.
What is a possible reason for this condition?
A. The DiskGroupName attribute was typed incorrectly.
B. The ForceImport attribute was set to True.
C. The DGGuid attribute was left blank.
D. The VMDg resource was set to non-critical.
Answer: A
7. Which two attributes must be defined for a SQLServer2005 resource? (Choose two.)
A. UserAccount
B. Instance
C. DetailMonitor
D. LanmanResName
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E. MountV
Answer: BD
8. Which service group attribute setting calls a user-defined script that checks for external conditions before
bringing the service group online?
A. PreOnlining
B. PreOnline
C. Priority
D. Probed
Answer: B
9. What is the default level of authorization of a new Veritas Cluster Server user?
A. Cluster Administrator
B. Cluster Operator
C. Cluster Guest
D. Group Administrator
E. Group Operator
Answer: C
10. Given a three-node cluster running two instances of Exchange with an any-to-any configuration, which
FailOverPolicy prevents one instance of Exchange from attempting to fail over to the node with Exchange
running on it?
A. Round-robin
B. Priority
C. Load
D. Exclusive
Answer: C
11. Which functionality is added to the Java console when accessing the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator
rather than a running cluster? (Choose two.)
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A. power off/on a system
B. delete a system
C. fault a resource
D. fault a heartbeat link
E. power off/on a disk array
F. remove a heartbeat link
Answer: AC
12. A cluster has three systems: S1, S2, and S3; and six service groups: SGa, SGb, SGc, SGd, SGe, and
SGf. The SGa, SGd, and SGf service groups are online on the S1 system. The SGc and SGe service
groups are online on the S2 system. The SGb service group is online on the S3 system.
Given the partial main.cf definition:
Group SGb (
SystemList = { S1 = 0, S2 = 1, S3 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { S1, S2, S3 }
FailOverPolicy = RoundRobin
)
If the S3 system reboots, what happens to SGb?
A. It goes to system S1.
B. It goes to system S2.
C. It goes to system S3.
D. It remains offline.
Answer: B
13. Which two files are required in order to start the Veritas Cluster Server Simulator? (Choose two.)
A. main.cf
B. main.cf.previous
C. main.cf.sim
D. types.cf
E. types.cf.previous
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F. types.cf.sim
Answer: AD
14. A new file share service group is configured using the FileShare Configuration Wizard. What is the
default value for the ForceUnmount attribute for the MountV resource?
A. NONE
B. ALL
C. READ_ONLY
D. READ_WRITE
Answer: C
15. Which resource type attribute is modified to reduce the fault detection time?
A. MonitorTimeOut
B. MonitorInterval
C. FaultOnMonitorTimeouts
D. OnlineMonitorInterval
Answer: B
16. A resource has the ResourceOwner attribute set to Marc. The resource has faulted. Who can clear the
fault?
A. any Cluster Administrator
B. any Cluster Guest
C. a Windows domain user named Marc, with or without a Veritas Cluster Server account
D. a Veritas Cluster Server user named Marc, with Cluster Guest priveleges
Answer: A
17. An update to SQL Server makes changes to registry keys on the active system. Which type of resource
copies these changes to the target system on failover?
A. RegKey
B. KeyRep
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C. Replicate
D. RegRep
Answer: D
18. If a persistent resource in a service group named SG1 faults, Veritas Cluster Server fails the service
group over to another system if which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A. The ManageFault attribute is set.
B. The AutoFailOver attribute is set.
C. Another system in the cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
D. The AutoRestart attribute is set.
E. Another system in a different cluster is available to which SG1 can failover.
Answer: BC
19. Given the following information:
include “types.cf”
cluster default_clus (
UserNames = {
aaron = alkdsjfaldjaldfaH,
barbara = ieruhrkafhkafhake,
carmen = urHkjREOHGkajhuel,
dionne = lasdjfasiLjirrljl,
edward = asdlfjaielajfLKio,
fung = EIwfjsldfjaldfjaM,
georgia = LlkjLriLKjrleirka }
Administrators = { aaron }
Operators = { barbara }
CounterInterval = 5
)
group group1 (
SystemList = { sys1 = 0, sys2 = 1 }
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AutoStartList = { sys1 }
Administrators = { carmen }
Operators = { dionne }
)
group group2 (
SystemList = { sys2 = 0, sys1 = 1 }
AutoStartList = { sys2 }
Administrators = { edward }
Operators = { fung }
)
Which two users can persistently freeze group2? (Choose two.)
A. aaron
B. barbara
C. carmen
D. edward
E. fung
F. georgia
Answer: AD
20. A Web hosting company has an eight-node cluster running 60 Web servers. Their failover objective is to
distribute the load equally among all nodes. Each Web server has approximately the same load on the
servers. All servers are identical.
Which FailOverPolicy accomplishes this with the least amount of effort on the part of the administrator?
A. Load
B. Priority
C. RoundRobin
D. Average
Answer: C
21. Which two types of monitoring can be performed on SQLServer2005 resources? (Choose two.)
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A. detail monitoring
B. basic level monitoring
C. kernel level monitoring
D. specific monitoring
E. load monitoring
Answer: AB
22. A virtual server name is assigned to an Exchange application service group. Which type of resource
assigns the virtual server name to the primary system upon startup?
A. RegRep
B. SMTPSVC
C. Lanman
D. ExchService
Answer: C
23. Which service group attribute indicates whether Veritas Cluster Server initiates an automatic failover
when a service group faults?
A. AutoRestart
B. AutoFailOver
C. AutoSwitch
D. AutoStart
Answer: B
24. Which event trigger is called when a service group is unable to fail over?
A. failovernone
B. nofailover
C. sgnofailover
D. failover
Answer: B
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PrepKing.com Symantec 250-312 Sample Questions
Exam : Symantec 250-312
Title :Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server
1. What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE
2. Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change the
user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C
3. Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE
4. A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
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A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position under
the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C
5. Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A
6. Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B
7. Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive bit.
Answer: AD
8. Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC
9. Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor’s System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE
10. Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE
11. An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A
12. Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB
13. A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
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B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C
14. A web-based retailer’s mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B
15. A global company must use a “follow-the-sun” backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B
16. A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails within
20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B
17. A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company’s SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company’s SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C
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PrepKing.com Symantec 250-250 Sample Questions
Exam : Symantec 250-250
Title : Veritas Storage Foundation 5.0 Administration for UNIX
1. Concatenating subdisks across multiple Volume Manager disks is called _____.
A.mirroring
B.striping
C.spanning
D.layering
Answer: C
2. Which disk configuration method brings a previously used disk with existing information under Volume
Manager control while preserving the data?
A.activation
B.initialization
C.retention
D.encapsulation
Answer: D
3. Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Answer: AE
4. Which vxassist parameter is used to set the size of the stripes in a stripe volume?
A.stripesize
B.stripecolsize
C.stripeunit
D.stsize
Answer: C
5. Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Answer: C
6. What are the advantages of layered volumes? (Choose two.)
A.faster recovery time
B.use of more VM objects
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C.better write performance
D.higher resiliency
E.less disk space usage
Answer: AD
7. Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Answer: C
8. Which command can be used to remove a disk interactively?
A.vxdiskadm option “remove a disk”
B.vxdisk remove -f -i
C.vxdisk relocate -f -i
D.vxdiskadm option “relocate subdisks”
Answer: A
9. Plexes in a two-way mirror are out of sync. Data in one plex is stale while the other is clean.
Which type of resynchronization will be carried out to recover the volume?
A.read-writesync
B.read-writeback
C.atomic-sync
D.atomic-copy
Answer: D
10. On which region of the disk does Volume Manager keep structural information that it uses to manage
virtual objects?
A.the plex region
B.the platform region
C.the public region
D.the private region
Answer: D
11. A cross-platform data sharing (CDS) disk consists of which areas? (Choose three.)
A.the private region
B.the OS reserved area
C.the public region
D.the virtual area
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E.the plex area
Answer: ABC
12. Which information does Volume Manager store in the private region?
A.disk headers
B.configuration database
C.kernel logs
D.dirty region logs
Answer: B
13. Which plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose two.)
A.data
B.partial
C.log
D.slice
E.partition
Answer: AC
14. A Volume Manager disk can be divided into one or more _____.
A.disk groups
B.partitions
C.slices
D.subdisks
Answer: D
15. The disk media name is the name assigned to _____.
A.a disk by the disk array
B.a disk by the operating system
C.a disk in a disk group
D.an unused disk
Answer: C
16. Which statement is true about a subdisk?
A.It can exist on multiple LUNs.
B.It is the smallest unit of storage.
C.It is mapped to a virtual disk.
D.It consists of noncontiguous disk blocks.
Answer: B
17. In Volume Manager, which virtual storage device is used by applications in a manner similar to a
physical disk?
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A.vmdisk
B.subdisk
C.volume
D.plex
Answer: C
18. Which object is created when you create a volume?
A.disk
B.subdisk
C.subplex
D.slice
Answer: B
19. What are accurate descriptions of a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.It is a collection of Volume Manager disks.
B.It is a logical collection of subdisks.
C.It allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups.
D.It represents a management and configuration boundary.
E.It is a set of contiguous disk blocks.
Answer: AD
20. What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A.volume
B.plex
C.vmdisk
D.disk group
Answer: B
21. Conceptually, a subdisk is similar to a _____.
A.plex
B.partition
C.disk
D.subplex
Answer: B
22. What are the advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A.removes size restrictions
B.provides load balancing
C.is a better usage of space
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D.simplifies administration
E.provides redundancy
Answer: ACD
23. What are the advantages of a properly configured striped volume layout? (Choose three.)
A.provides parallel data transfer
B.provides load balancing
C.improves performance
D.provides data redundancy
E.improves reliability
Answer: ABC
24. What are the advantages of a properly configured, non-layered, mirrored volume layout? (Choose two.)
A.improves reliability
B.improves Volume Manager disk usage
C.improves read performance
D.improves write performance
E.improves availability
Answer: AC
25. Which RAID levels does Volume Manager support? (Choose three.)
A.0
B.1
C.3
D.5
E.6
Answer: ABD
26. What is the default stripe unit size of a simple striped volume?
A.8K
B.16K
C.32K
D.64K
Answer: D
27. Given the following command:
vxassist -g datadg make datavol layout=raid5 ncol=3
How many disks are needed to construct the data vol volume?
A.2
B.3
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C.4
D.5
Answer: C
28. What is the correct RAID level for a layered volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or
concatenation?
A.RAID-0
B.RAID-1
C.RAID-0+1
D.RAID-1+0
Answer: D
29. When using Volume Manager, what is the correct definition for RAID-0+1?
A.It is concatenation/striping plus mirrored parity. The mirroring of parity occurs above striping.
B.It is concatenation/striping plus mirroring. The mirroring occurs above the concatenation or striping.
C.It is concatenation/striping plus mirroring. The mirroring occurs below the concatenation or striping.
D.It is concatenation/striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more disks or striped
across two or more disks.
Answer: B
30. When using Volume Manager, what is the correct definition for RAID-5?
A.mirroring with striping that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that parity
information across the disks
B.mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and enable fast
recovery
C.a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that parity on a single
column
D.a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that parity information
across the disks
Answer: D
31. A new active/active disk array has been added to your system. The array is properly configured to
support DMP and connectivity is correct. The output of vxdisk list displays twice the number of disks than
expected.
What is the next step to complete the DMP configuration?
A.reboot the array
B.restart vxconfigd
C.suppress DMP for the array
D.install the ASL on the host
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Answer: D
32. What happens when you configure two DMP paths to an active/active array?
A.All reads are sent down both paths.
B.All writes are sent down both paths.
C.Failure of one path redirects all I/O down the remaining path.
D.Failure of one path stops all I/O down the remaining path.
Answer: C
33. What happens when one path in an active/active array is set to primary?
A.The load balancing algorithm changes.
B.The I/O continues to flow down all paths.
C.The configuration changes to active/passive.
D.The command returns an error message.
Answer: B
34. What does an active/passive array provide?
A.load balancing using minimum I/O policy
B.high availability in the event of a total array failure
C.load balancing using the round robin I/O policy
D.high availability in the event of a path failure
Answer: D
35. Which command suppresses devices from DMP?
A.vxdmpadm
B.vxdiskadm
C.vxdisk
D.vxassist
Answer: B
36. What are path attributes that can be set for a DMP array? (Choose three.)
A.primary
B.secondary
C.standby
D.noactive
E.priority
Answer: ABC
37. Which layout options are available when using the vxassist command to create a layered volume?
(Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
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B.mirror-concatenate
C.stripe-mirror
D.mirror-stripe
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Answer: AC
38. When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are available to
create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Answer: AB
39. Which command lists the disks in a disk group that contain a copy of the configuration database?
A.vxdg listdb diskgroup
B.vxdg listconfig diskgroup
C.vxdg listmeta diskgroup
D.vxdg list diskgroup
Answer: D
40. 182. Volume configuration data are backed up in files located in _____.
A./etc/vx/cbr/bk
B./etc/vx/vxconfig
C./var/vx/cbr/bk
D./var/vx/vxconfig
Answer: A
41. Which conversion option is used to convert a RAID-0+1 volume to a layered volume?
A.mirror-stripe to stripe-mirror
B.stripe-mirror to mirror-stripe
C.mirror-concatenate to concatenate-mirror
D.concatenate-mirror to mirror-concatenate
Answer: A
42. Which configuration step must be completed prior to assigning a new disk to a disk group?
A.initialize the disk
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